ಗ್ರಾಮೀಣ ವಸತಿ

<div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgx-vxPUdq7zh0BnU-hCFWOTfiwaGf5pjFE47BLnUm-cq1q96WOX5CNxaeUZYhZCeG-Ebh0hyYbY7fNgWUgPVAgZ-UQdYgqCyGGF2d6yb9gfs_4DpXnRoWyFTO7EUtDVQH8cNwxNOY7_g1ll7nXpZSgd-LdrXZRlceyU9aJH-qg1zdpbL-fZlIwng/s1025/Poster_Maker2023_01_25_05_39_36.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="236" data-original-width="1025" height="152" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgx-vxPUdq7zh0BnU-hCFWOTfiwaGf5pjFE47BLnUm-cq1q96WOX5CNxaeUZYhZCeG-Ebh0hyYbY7fNgWUgPVAgZ-UQdYgqCyGGF2d6yb9gfs_4DpXnRoWyFTO7EUtDVQH8cNwxNOY7_g1ll7nXpZSgd-LdrXZRlceyU9aJH-qg1zdpbL-fZlIwng/w656-h152/Poster_Maker2023_01_25_05_39_36.png" width="656" /></a></div><p>  ವಸತಿರಹಿತ ಮತ್ತು ನಿವೇಶನರಹಿತ ಜನರನ್ನು ಹಾಗೂ ವಲಸೆ ಕಾರ್ಮಿಕರನ್ನು ಗುರುತಿಸುವುದು. <br />  ಮೀನುಗಾರರ  ವಸತಿ  ಸ್ಕೀಮುಗಳನ್ನು  ಒಳಗೊಂಡಂತೆ  ಎಲ್ಲಾ  ಗ್ರಾಮೀಣ  ವಸತಿ  ಕಾರ್ಯಕ್ರಮಗಳ ಅನುಷ್ಠಾನದಲ್ಲಿ ಭಾಗವಹಿಸುವುದು. <br /> ವಸತಿ ಮೇಲ್ದರ್ಜಿಕರಣ ಸ್ಕೀಮಿನ ಅನುಷ್ಠಾನದಲ್ಲಿ ಭಾಗವಹಿಸುವುದು. <br /> ಋತುಮಾನದ ವಲಸೆ ಕಾರ್ಮಿಕರಿಗೆ ಋತುಮಾನದ ವಲಸೆ ಸೌಲಭ್ಯಗಳನ್ನು ಅನುಷ್ಠಾನಗೊಳಿಸುವುದು. <br />  ಗ್ರಾಮೀಣ ವಸತಿ ಸಹಕಾರ ಸಂಘಗಳಿಗೆ ಉತ್ತೇಜನ ನೀಡುವುದು. <br /> ಸರ್ಕಾರಿ ಭೂಮಿಯನ್ನು ಗುರುತಿಸುವುದು ಮತ್ತು ಬಡಾವಣೆಗಳ ಅಭಿವೃದ್ಧಿಗಾಗಿ, ವಸತಿ ರಹಿತರಿಗೆ ವಸತಿ ನಿವೇಶನಗಳನ್ನು  ವಿತರಿಸುವುದಕ್ಕೆ  ಸಂಬಂಧಿಸಿದಂತೆ  ನಿವೇಶನ  ಹಂಚಿಕೆಗಾಗಿ  ಅಥವಾ  ನಿವೇಶನ ಮೀಸಲಾತಿಗಾಗಿ ಜಿಲ್ಲಾಧಿಕಾರಿಗೆ ಶಿಫಾರಸ್ಸು ಮಾಡುವುದು. <br />  ಸರ್ಕಾರವು  ನೀಡಿದ  ಅಧಿಕಾರಗಳ  ಪ್ರಕಾರ  ಗ್ರಾಮೀಣ  ವಸತಿ  ಮತ್ತು  ಬಡಾವಣೆ  ಯೋಜನೆಗಳನ್ನು ಮಂಜೂರು ಮಾಡುವುದು. <br />9. ಕುಡಿಯುವ ನೀರಿನ ಪೂರೈಕೆ <br /> ನೀರಿನ  ಗುಣಮಟ್ಟ  ಮತ್ತು  ಅದರ  ವ್ಯಾಪ್ತಿ  ಕುರಿತು  ಅಗತ್ಯ  ದತ್ತಾಂಶ,  ಮಾಹಿತಿ ಸಂಗ್ರಹಿಸುವುದು ಹಾಗೂ ಆ ಕುರಿತು ಯೋಜನೆ ಸಿದ್ಧಪಡಿಸುವುದು. <br />  ಗ್ರಾಮಪಂಚಾಯತಿಗಳ  ವ್ಯಾಪ್ತಿಯೊಳಗಿನ  ನೀರು  ಸರಬರಾಜು  ಸ್ಕೀಮುಗಳನ್ನು ನಿರ್ವಹಿಸುವುದು ಮತ್ತು ಮೇಲ್ವಿಚಾರಣೆ ಮಾಡುವುದು. <br />  ಜಲಮಾಲಿನ್ಯದ ನಿಯಂತ್ರಣ, ರಕ್ಷಣೆ ಮತ್ತು ತಡೆಗಟ್ಟುವಿಕೆ <br />  ಸಾಂಪ್ರದಾಯಿಕ ಕುಡಿಯುವ ಜಲಮೂಲಗಳ ನಿರ್ವಹಣೆ <br />  ಪರೀಕ್ಷೆಗಾಗಿ ಕುಡಿಯುವ ನೀರಿನ ಮೂಲಗಳಿಂದ ನೀರಿನ ಮಾದರಿಯ ಸಂಗ್ರಹಣೆ <br />  ಕುಡಿಯುವ ನೀರಿನ ಮೂಲಗಳ ನಿಯತಕಾಲಿಕ ಶುದ್ಧೀಕರಣ <br />  ಬಳಕೆದಾರರ  ಶುಲ್ಕಗಳನ್ನು  ಸಂಗ್ರಹಿಸುವ  ಮೂಲಕ  ಮನೆಗಳಿಗೆ  ಮತ್ತು  ವಾಣಿಜ್ಯ  ಸಂಸ್ಥೆಗಳಿಗೆ ನಲ್ಲಿ ನೀರನ್ನು ಒದಗಿಸುವುದು   ನೀರು ಶುದ್ಧೀಕರಣ ಘಟಕಗಳ ಸ್ಥಾಪನೆ ಮತ್ತು ನಿರ್ವಹಣೆ <br />ಅಂತರ್ಜಲ ದುರ್ಬಳಕೆಯ ನಿಯಂತ್ರಣಕ್ಕೆ ಪ್ರಾಧಿಕಾರಗಳಿಗೆ ನೆರವು ನೀಡುವುದು. <br />10.  ಪಟ್ಟಣ  ಮತ್ತು  ಗ್ರಾಮಾಂತರ  ಯೋಜನೆಗಳು  ಮತ್ತು  ಲೋಕೋಪಯೋಗಿ  ಕಾಮಗಾರಿಗಳು  (ರಸ್ತೆಗಳು, ಸೇತುವೆಗಳು ಹಾಯ್ಗಡಗಳು, ಜಲಮಾರ್ಗಗಳು ಮತ್ತು ಇತರ ಸಂಪರ್ಕ ಕಲ್ಪಿಸುವ ಮಾರ್ಗಗಳು) <br />  ಈ ಕೆಳಗಿನ ನಿಮರ್ಿತಿಗಳಿಗಾಗಿ ಯೋಜನೆ ರೂಪಿಸುವುದು, ಅವುಗಳನ್ನು ನಿಮರ್ಿಸುವುದು ಮತ್ತು ನಿರ್ವಹಿಸುವುದು: <br />(ಎ)  ಪಾದಚಾರಿ ಮಾರ್ಗಗಳು/ಓಣಿಗಳು <br />(ಬಿ)  ಗ್ರಾಮ ರಸ್ತೆಗಳು <br />(ಸಿ)  ಸೇತುವೆಗಳು, ಮೋರಿಗಳು, <br />(ಡಿ)  ಕಟ್ಟಡಗಳು <br />(ಇ)  ಚರಂಡಿಗಳು  <br />  (ಎಫ್)  ರಾಷ್ಟ್ರೀಯ ಹೆದ್ದಾರಿಗಳು, ರಾಜ್ಯ ಹೆದ್ದಾರಿಗಳು ಮತ್ತು ಎಂಡಿಆರ್ಗಳನ್ನು ಅಥವಾ  ಇತರ  ಸ್ಥಳೀಯ  ಸಂಸ್ಥೆಗಳಿಗೆ  ಅಥವಾ  ಸರ್ಕಾರಿ  ಇಲಾಖೆಗಳಿಗೆ  ವಹಿಸಿಕೊಟ್ಟಂಥ ನಿರ್ಮಿತಿಗಳನ್ನು ಹೊರುತುಪಡಿಸಿ ಇತರ ನಿರ್ಮಿತಿಗಳು. <br /> ಈ ಕೆಳಗಿನವುಗಳನ್ನು ನಿರ್ಮಿಸುವುದು ಹಾಗೂ ನಿರ್ವಹಿಸುವುದು ಎ. ಪ್ರಯಾಣಿಕರ ತಂಗುದಾಣಗಳು/ವಾಹನ ನಿಲುಗಡೆ ಸ್ಥಳಗಳು  ಬಿ. ಆಟದ ಮೈದಾನಗಳು <br />  ಎಲ್ಲಾ  ವಿಧದ  ಸ್ಮಶಾನ  ಭೂಮಿ/ಸಮಾಧಿ  ಭೂಮಿಗಳನ್ನು  ನಿರ್ಮಿಸುವುದು  ಮತ್ತು  ನಿರ್ವಹಿಸುವುದು, ಗ್ರಾಮ ಪಂಚಾಯಿತಿ ಮಟ್ಟದಲ್ಲಿನ ಎಲ್ಲಾ ಸ್ಮಶಾನ ಭೂಮಿ/ಸಮಾಧಿ ಭೂಮಿಗಳ ಬಳಕೆಗಾಗಿ ನಿಯಮಗಳನ್ನು ಮತ್ತು ವಿನಿಮಯಗಳ್ನು ರಚಿಸುವುದು <br /> ದೋಣಿಗಳು, ಹಾಯ್ಗಡಗಳು ಮತ್ತು ಜಲ ಮಾರ್ಗಗಳನ್ನು ನಿರ್ವಹಿಸುವುದು <br />  ಮಳೆ ನೀರು ಚರಂಡಿಗಳನ್ನು ನಿರ್ವಹಿಸುವುದು <br /> ಸ್ನಾನ  ಘಟ್ಟಗಳು,  ಸಾರ್ವಜನಿಕ  ಮಾರುಕಟ್ಟೆ  ಮುಂತಾದವುಗಳಂಥಹ ಮೂಲಸೌಕರ್ಯಗಳನ್ನು/ಸೌಲಭ್ಯಗಳನ್ನು ಆಧರಿಸಿದ ಸಮುದಾಯ ಅವಶ್ಯಕತೆಗಳನ್ನು ಸ್ಥಾಪಿಸುವುದು. <br /> ಜನವಸತಿ ಪ್ರದೇಶಗಳನ್ನು ಅಭಿವೃದ್ಧಿ ಪಡಿಸುವುದು. <br />  ವಸತಿ ಬಡಾವಣೆಗಳನ್ನು ನಿರ್ಮಿಸುವುದು <br /> ಗ್ರಾಮ ಪಂಚಾಯಿತಿಗಳಿಗೆ ವಹಿಸಿಕೊಟ್ಟಿರುವ ಶಾಲಾ ಕಟ್ಟಡಗಳು, ಆಸ್ಪತ್ರೆಗಳು ಮತ್ತು ಇತರ ಸಾರ್ವಜನಿಕ ಸಂಸ್ಥೆಗಳ  ನಿರ್ಮಾಣಕ್ಕೆ  ಯೋಜನೆ  ಸಿದ್ಧಪಡಿಸುವುದು,  ಅವುಗಳನ್ನು  ನಿರ್ಮಿಸುವುದು  ಮತ್ತು ನಿರ್ವಹಿಸುವುದು. <br />  ಸಮಗ್ರ ಗ್ರಾಮ ಅಭಿವೃದ್ಧಿ ಯೋಜನೆಯನ್ನು ಸಿದ್ಧಪಡಿಸುವುದು. <br />11.  ಗ್ರಾಮೀಣ ವಿದ್ಯುದೀಕರಣ/ವಿದ್ಯುತ್ ಮತ್ತು ಇಂಧನ <br />  ಸಾರ್ವಜನಿಕ  ಬೀದಿಗಳು  ಮತ್ತು  ಸ್ಥಳಗಳಲ್ಲಿ  ಬೀದಿ  ದೀಪಗಳನ್ನು  ಅಳವಡಿಸುವುದು  ಮತ್ತು ನಿರ್ವಹಿಸುವುದು. <br /> ಗ್ರಾಮ  ಪಂಚಾಯಿತಿ  ನಿಧಿಗಳಿಂದ  ಛಾವಣಿ  ಮೇಲಿನ  ಸೌರ  ತಟ್ಟೆ  ಅಳವಡಿಕೆಯನ್ನು ಒಳಗೊಂಡಂತೆ  ಸೌರವಿದ್ಯುತ್,  ಜೈವಿಕ  ಅನಿಲ,  ಗಾಳಿಯಂತ್ರ,  ಕಿರು  ವಿದ್ಯುತ್  ಜಲ ಸ್ಥಾವರಗಳಂತಹ  ಸಣ್ಣ  ಸಾಂಪ್ರದಾಯಿಕ  ಮತ್ತು  ಅಸಂಪ್ರದಾಯಿಕ  ಇಂಧನ  ಘಟಕಗಳ ಕುರಿತು  ಯೋಜನೆ  ಸಿದ್ಧಪಡಿಸುವುದು,  ಅವುಗಳನ್ನು  ಸ್ಥಾಪಿಸುವುದು,  ನಿರ್ವಹಿಸುವುದು ಮತ್ತು ಅವುಗಳಿಗೆ ಉತ್ತೇಜನ ನೀಡುವುದು. <br /> ಹೆಚ್ಚುವರಿ ಅಸಂಪ್ರದಾಯಿಕ ಇಂಧನ ಉತ್ಪತ್ತಿಯನ್ನು ಇತರರಿಗೆ ಮಾರಾಟ ಮಾಡುವುದು. <br />(ತ) ಗ್ರಾಮ  ಪಂಚಾಯಿತಿಗೆ  ಸ್ವಯಂ  ಸೇವೆ  ಸಲ್ಲಿಸುವ  ಮೂಲಕ  ಗ್ರಾಮೀಣ  ವಿದ್ಯುದೀಕರಣಕ್ಕೆ ನೆರವು ನೀಡುವುದು. <br />12.  ಬಡತನ ನಿರ್ಮೂಲನೆ <br />  ಬಡ  ಜನರನ್ನು  ಗುರುತಿಸುವುದು  ಮತ್ತು  ಬಡತನ  ನಿರ್ಮೂಲನೆ  ಕಾರ್ಯಕ್ರಮಗಳನ್ನು ಜಾರಿಗೊಳಿಸುವುದು. <br />  ಎಲ್ಲಾ ಬಡತನ ನಿರ್ಮೂಲನ ಕಾರ್ಯಕ್ರಮಗಳ ಫಲಾನುಭವಿಗಳನ್ನು ಗುರುತಿಸುವುದು ಮತ್ತು ಆಯ್ಕೆ ಮಾಡುವುದು. <br /> ಗ್ರಾಮ  ಪಂಚಾಯಿತಿ  ಮಟ್ಟದಲ್ಲಿನ  ವಿವಿಧ  ಕಾರ್ಯಕ್ರಮಗಳ  ಅಡಿಯಲ್ಲಿ  ಫಲಾನುಭವಿಗಳ ಆಯ್ಕೆಗಾಗಿ ಗ್ರಾಮ ಸಭೆಗೆ ಅನುಕೂಲ ಕಲ್ಪಿಸಿಕೊಡುವುದು. <br /> ಬಡತನ  ನಿಮರ್ೂಲನೆ  ಕಾರ್ಯಕ್ರಮಗಳ  ಪ್ರಯೋಜನಗಳನ್ನು  ಕುರಿತು  ಯೋಜಿಸುವುದು, ಅನುಷ್ಠಾನಗೊಳಿಸುವುದು, ಅವುಗಳ ಮೇಲ್ವಿಚಾರಣೆ ಮಾಡುವುದು ಮತ್ತು ವಿತರಿಸುವುದು. <br />  ಸ್ವ-ಉದ್ಯೋಗ ಕಾರ್ಯಕ್ರಮಗಳಿಗೆ ಮೂಲಸೌಕರ್ಯ ಸೌಲಭ್ಯಗಳನ್ನು ಕಲ್ಪಿಸುವುದು. <br /> ಸ್ವ-ಸಹಾಯ  ಗುಂಪುಗಳನ್ನು  ಮತ್ತು  ನೆರೆಹೊರೆ  ಗುಂಪುಗಳನ್ನು  ಸಂಘಟಿಸುವುದು  ಮತ್ತು ಸಬಲೀಕರಣಗೊಳಿಸುವುದು. <br /> ಬಡತನ ನಿರ್ಮೂಲನೆ ಅವಶ್ಯಕತೆಗಳನ್ನು ವಿಶ್ಲೇಷಿಸುವುದು. <br /> ಸ್ವ-ಉದ್ಯೋಗ  ಮತ್ತು  ಮಜೂರಿ  ಉದ್ಯೋಗ  ಕಾರ್ಯಕ್ರಮಗಳ  ಬಗ್ಗೆ  ಯೋಜನೆ ಸಿದ್ಧಪಡಿಸುವುದು ಮತ್ತು ಅದನ್ನು ಅನುಷ್ಠಾನಗೊಳಿಸುವುದು. <br /> ವಿವಿಧ ಸ್ಕೀಮುಗಳ ಅಡಿಯಲ್ಲಿ ಮೂಲಭೂತ ಕನಿಷ್ಠ ಅಗತ್ಯತೆಗಳನ್ನು ಒದಗಿಸುವುದು. <br />  ಕೌಶಲ್ಯ  ಅಭಿವೃದ್ಧಿ  ಕಾರ್ಯಕ್ರಮಗಳಲ್ಲಿ  ಭಾಗವಹಿಸುವುದು  ಮತ್ತು  ಉದ್ಯೋಗ  ಅವಕಾಶದ ಉತ್ತೇಜನ ಕುರಿತು ಸಾರ್ವಜನಿಕರಲ್ಲಿ ಜಾಗೃತಿ ಮೂಡಿಸುವುದು <br />13.  ಸಾರ್ವಜನಿಕ ವಿತರಣಾ ವ್ಯವಸ್ಥೆ (ಪಿಡಿಎಸ್) <br /> ಆಹಾರ  ಧಾನ್ಯಗಳು  ಮತ್ತು  ಇತರ  ದೈನಂದಿನ  ಅವಶ್ಯಕತೆಗಳ  ವಿತರಣೆಯನ್ನು ನಿರ್ವಹಿಸುವುದು. <br /> ಸಾರ್ವಜನಿಕ ವಿತರಣಾ ವ್ಯವಸ್ಥೆಯನ್ನು ಮೇಲ್ವಿಚಾರಣೆ ಮಾಡುವುದು ಮತ್ತು ಆ ಬಗ್ಗೆ ಅರಿವು ಮೂಡಿಸುವುದು. <br /> ಗ್ರಾಮ  ಪಂಚಾಯಿತಿ  ನಿಧಿಗಳಿಂದ  ಗೋದಾಮುಗಳನ್ನು  ಮತ್ತು  ಗ್ರಾಮೀಣ  ದಾಸ್ತಾನು ಮಳಿಗೆಗಳನ್ನು ನಿರ್ಮಿಸುವುದು ಮತ್ತು ಅವುಗಳನ್ನು ನಿರ್ವಹಿಸುವುದು <br />14.  ವಿಪತ್ತು ನಿರ್ವಹಣೆ <br /> ವಿಪತ್ತು ಪೀಡಿತ ಸ್ಥಳಗಳನ್ನು ಗುರುತಿಸಲು ಸಮೀಕ್ಷೆ ನಡೆಸುವುದಕ್ಕಾಗಿ; <br />  ವಿಪತ್ತು ನಿರ್ವಹಣೆ ಸೌಲಭ್ಯಗಳನ್ನು ಸೃಜಿಸಲು ಮತ್ತು ನಿರ್ವಹಿಸಲು; <br />ವಿಪತ್ತು ನಿರ್ವಹಣೆಯಲ್ಲಿ ಸ್ಥಳೀಯ ಮತ್ತು ಹೊರಗಿನ ತಜ್ಞರನ್ನು ಗುರುತಿಸಲು; <br /> ಗ್ರಾಮ  ಪಂಚಾಯತಿಯ  ಸ್ವಂತ  ನಿಧಿಯಿಂದ  ಮತ್ತು  ಸರ್ಕಾರವು  ಹೊರಡಿಸಿದ  ಮಾರ್ಗಸೂಚಿಗಳಪ್ರಕಾರ ವಿಪತ್ತುಗಳಿಂದ ಸಂತ್ರಸ್ತರಾದ ವ್ಯಕ್ತಿಗಳಿಗೆ ಪರಿಹಾರ ಮತ್ತು ನಷ್ಟ ಪರಿಹಾರ ಒದಗಿಸಲು, -ಸಂಬಂಧಪಟ್ಟ ಪ್ರಾಧಿಕಾರಗಳಿಗೆ ನೆರವು ನೀಡುವುದು <br />15.  ಶಿಕ್ಷಣ  [ಪ್ರಾಥಮಿಕ  ಮತ್ತು  ಪ್ರೌಢಶಾಲಾ  ಶಿಕ್ಷಣ,  ತಾಂತ್ರಿಕ  ಮತ್ತು  ವೃತ್ತಿಪರ  ಶಿಕ್ಷಣ,  ವಯಸ್ಕರ  ಹಾಗೂ ಅನೌಪಚಾರಿಕ ಶಿಕ್ಷಣ] <br />  ಪಂಚಾಯತಿ  ಮಟ್ಟದಲ್ಲಿ  ಸಾಂಪ್ರದಾಯಿಕ  ಮತ್ತು  ಸಾಂಪ್ರದಾಯಿಕವಲ್ಲದ  ಈ  ಎರಡು  ರೀತಿಯ  ಶಿಕ್ಷಣ ನೀಡುವ  ಕುರಿತು  ಯೋಜನೆಯನ್ನು  ರೂಪಿಸುವಲ್ಲಿ  ಮತ್ತು  ಮೇಲ್ವಿಚಾರಣೆ  ಮಾಡುವಲ್ಲಿ ಪಾಲ್ಗೊಳ್ಳುವುದು. <br /> ಲೋಯರ್  ಮತ್ತು  ಅಪ್ಪರ್  ಪ್ರಾಥಮಿಕ  ಶಾಲೆಗಳನ್ನು  ಸ್ಥಾಪಿಸುವುದಕ್ಕೆ  ಸಂಬಂಧಿಸಿದಂತೆ  ಸಕ್ಷಮ ಪ್ರಾಧಿಕಾರಕ್ಕೆ  ಪ್ರಸ್ತಾವನೆಗಳನ್ನು  ಕಳುಹಿಸುವುದು  ಮತ್ತು  ಅವರಿಂದ  ಮಂಜೂರಾತಿಗಳನ್ನು ಪಡೆದುಕೊಳ್ಳುವುದು. <br />ಸರ್ಕಾರಿ ಲೋಯರ್ ಮತ್ತು ಅಪ್ಪರ್ ಪ್ರಾಥಮಿಕ ಶಾಲೆಗಳ ಮೇಲುಸ್ತುವಾರಿ ನೋಡಿಕೊಳ್ಳುವುದು. <br />ಸರ್ಕಾರಿ  ಲೋಯರ್  ಮತ್ತು  ಅಪ್ಪರ್  ಪ್ರಾಥಮಿಕ  ಶಾಲೆಗಳ  ಕಟ್ಟಡಗಳನ್ನು  ನಿಮರ್ಿಸುವುದು  ಮತ್ತು ನಿರ್ವಹಿಸುವುದು.  <br /> ಮಕ್ಕಳ ವಿವರಗಳನ್ನು ಸಂಗ್ರಹಿಸುವುದು ಮತ್ತು ಇಂದೀಕರಿಸುವುದು.  <br />ಸಾಕ್ಷರತಾ  ಕಾರ್ಯಕ್ರಮಗಳು,  ಅನೌಪಚಾರಿಕ  ಮತ್ತು  ಔಪಚಾರಿಕ  ಶಿಕ್ಷಣ  ಕಾರ್ಯಕ್ರಮಗಳನ್ನು  ಅನುಷ್ಠಾನಗೊಳಿಸುವುದು, ವಯಸ್ಕರ ಸಾಕ್ಷರತೆಗೆ ಉತ್ತೇಜನ ನೀಡುವುದು. <br />ಆಡಳಿತ ನಿರ್ವಹಣೆಯನ್ನು ಒಳಗೊಂಡಂತೆ ಗುಣಮಟ್ಟ ನಿಯಂತ್ರಣವನ್ನು ನಿರ್ವಹಿಸುವುದು ಮತ್ತು ಮೇಲ್ವಿಚಾರಣೆ ಮಾಡುವುದು. <br />ಗ್ರಾಮ  ಪಂಚಾಯಿತಿ  ಮಟ್ಟದಲ್ಲಿ  ಶಿಕ್ಷಣ  ಚಟುವಟಿಕೆಗಳ  ಸಮೀಕ್ಷೆ  ಮಾಡುವುದು  ಮತ್ತು ಮೌಲ್ಯಮಾಪನ ಮಾಡುವುದು. <br /> ಹಿಂದುಳಿದ  ವರ್ಗಗಳು  ಮತ್ತು  ಸಮೂಹಗಳಿಗೆ,  ಬಾಲಕಿಯರಿಗೆ,  ವಿಶೇಷವಾಗಿ  ವಿಕಲಚೇತನರು  ಮತ್ತು ಅಲ್ಪಸಂಖ್ಯಾತ  ಸಮೂಹಗಳಿಗಾಗಿ  ಉನ್ನತ  ಪ್ರಾಥಮಿಕ  ಹಂತದವರೆಗಿನ  ಆಶ್ರಮ, ಶಾಲೆಗಳ/ವಿದ್ಯಾರ್ಥಿನಿಲಯ ಶಾಲೆಗಳ ಮೇಲ್ವಿಚಾರಣೆ ಮಾಡುವುದು. <br />ಗ್ರಾಮೀಣ  ಕುಶಲಕರ್ಮಿಗಳಿಗೆ  ಉತ್ತೇಜನ  ನೀಡುವುದು  ಮತ್ತು  ಅವರಿಗೆ  ವೃತ್ತಿ  ತರಬೇತಿಯನ್ನು ನೀಡುವುದು. <br /> ಪ್ರಾಥಮಿಕ  ಹಾಗೂ  ಮಾಧ್ಯಮಿಕ  ಶಾಲೆಗಳಲ್ಲಿ  ಸಂಪೂರ್ಣ  ದಾಖಲಾತಿ  ಮತ್ತು  ಹಾಜರಾತಿಯನ್ನು ಖಚಿತಪಡಿಸಿಕೊಳ್ಳುವುದು. <br />16. ಗ್ರಂಥಾಲಯಗಳು<br /> ಗ್ರಾಮ  ಪಂಚಾಯತಿ  ಮಟ್ಟದ  ಗ್ರಂಥಾಲಯಗಳನ್ನು  ಮತ್ತು  ವಾಚನಾಲಯಗಳನ್ನು  ನಿರ್ವಹಿಸುವುದು  ಮತ್ತು  ಮೇಲ್ವಿಚಾರಣೆ ಮಾಡುವುದು. <br /></p>

ವಸತಿರಹಿತ ಮತ್ತು ನಿವೇಶನರಹಿತ ಜನರನ್ನು ಹಾಗೂ ವಲಸೆ ಕಾರ್ಮಿಕರನ್ನು ಗುರುತಿಸುವುದು.   ಮೀನುಗಾರರ …

Recruitment of various post in AIRPORTS AUTHORITY OF INDIA (A Category–1‘Mini Ratna’ Public Sector Enterprise)

<p style="text-align: center;"><b>AIRPORTS AUTHORITY OF INDIA</b></p><p style="text-align: center;"><b>(A Category–1‘Mini Ratna’ Public Sector Enterprise)</b></p><p style="text-align: center;"><b>Eastern Region, NSCBI Airport, Kolkata</b></p><p><br /></p><p>RECRUITMENT OF VARIOUS POSTS IN AAI: EASTERN REGION</p><p>Airports Authority of India invites online applications from the eligible candidates who are domicile of West Bengal, Bihar, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Andaman & Nicobar Islands and Sikkim for the post of Junior Assistant (Fire Service) NE-4 level, Senior Assistant (Electronics) and Senior Assistant (Accounts) NE-6 level, at various AAI airports and other AAI Establishments in the above States/UT in Eastern Region. Applicants shall apply online only through Airports Authority of India Website i.e., [https://www.aai.aero/en/careers/recruitment] for the above post at AAI Airports/Establishments under AAI.</p><p>(APPLICATION THROUGH OTHER THAN ONLINE MODE SHALL NOT BE ACCEPTED)<a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEim17WUaAOxppNBlYxDPr9kxzI1liXLxPKvk09oooDUSAvgp0z_VRTOjrs3nh-InmbKJiJduppAwV4hDOXmW0Cvbt9MC4f8TbHekUwnG9RgKHWPvabWVdNQZL-E3uSp35jU59zl0FCEQxcMgRdLt94GSV2h5YGS_WMLof5WLSnxc7IQ_4pRNlYtMw/s549/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_001.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em; text-align: center;"><img border="0" data-original-height="292" data-original-width="549" height="344" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEim17WUaAOxppNBlYxDPr9kxzI1liXLxPKvk09oooDUSAvgp0z_VRTOjrs3nh-InmbKJiJduppAwV4hDOXmW0Cvbt9MC4f8TbHekUwnG9RgKHWPvabWVdNQZL-E3uSp35jU59zl0FCEQxcMgRdLt94GSV2h5YGS_WMLof5WLSnxc7IQ_4pRNlYtMw/w648-h344/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_001.png" width="648" /></a>* No. of posts may vary</p><div>** Post is applicable only for dependent of Ex-serviceman killed in action.</div><div>Note: Disabled candidates are not eligible for the post of Junior Assistant (Fire Service) due to specific nature of job.</div><div><br /></div><div>Abbreviation: - NCL = Non-Creamy Layer, ESM = Ex- Serviceman</div><div>EWS = Economically Weaker Section</div><div><br /></div><div>EMOLUMENTS</div><div>In addition to Basic Pay, Dearness Allowance Perks @ 35% of Basic Pay, HRA and other benefits which include CPF, Gratuity, Social Security Schemes, Medical Benefits etc. are admissible as per AAI Rules.</div><div><br /></div><div>Note: Airports Authority of India Reserves the right to increase or decrease the vacancies depending upon the future requirements.</div><div>I. ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgxPqGIBWmWw_iQkNhf4WuSBZc9GDJFxv_eelM8mXrR8EKKQojr9_XXgzY9ERHXMaPtNfBr1mHOPqSaqflvhWSa9km5Ll5OkNY6JaI0brEc17UgfmJY13iEDfAIc8eMdckII3L9iR97-QxIG2Tg6ih5zhCEdOxzmXGtj8YgmuTpZCp5-S9wTy5h3A/s590/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_002.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="590" data-original-width="544" height="707" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgxPqGIBWmWw_iQkNhf4WuSBZc9GDJFxv_eelM8mXrR8EKKQojr9_XXgzY9ERHXMaPtNfBr1mHOPqSaqflvhWSa9km5Ll5OkNY6JaI0brEc17UgfmJY13iEDfAIc8eMdckII3L9iR97-QxIG2Tg6ih5zhCEdOxzmXGtj8YgmuTpZCp5-S9wTy5h3A/w652-h707/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_002.png" width="652" /></a></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhcrJU3bfUm8PY0qxJB_sooIku-VogsyzrNxKhMWWzLvkSvj575s973SHZPDyq1bjMS8P4ZSWedRbNVr2CwrwMYLdc9BqNAXIhnB_mBMSsr2QPpO5Yp8S45E60_ZB26VxzrBqFBuwoRPOC4tJF18VI_Eu39ukkT8cdY3FnNDVVF788ny-vkS4ug1w/s727/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_003.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="727" data-original-width="546" height="870" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhcrJU3bfUm8PY0qxJB_sooIku-VogsyzrNxKhMWWzLvkSvj575s973SHZPDyq1bjMS8P4ZSWedRbNVr2CwrwMYLdc9BqNAXIhnB_mBMSsr2QPpO5Yp8S45E60_ZB26VxzrBqFBuwoRPOC4tJF18VI_Eu39ukkT8cdY3FnNDVVF788ny-vkS4ug1w/w653-h870/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_003.png" width="653" /></a></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjlOwX8pmY9rHqymnNfKmrI418mRZBJf9M5iKfrGU-GHp8U57mwyXc3awHWaYQW7Gm49_iwhj61C33dn-7av5PjKfe5VUYULO1rIIvyjfu-qmhl2V094DPKOQXe04GQeA9PBKqWcC_PauqkwVVOx4ELhHz7D8AgY3pWTizBYpONPZ36SaDPJvBOGg/s546/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_004.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="340" data-original-width="546" height="406" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjlOwX8pmY9rHqymnNfKmrI418mRZBJf9M5iKfrGU-GHp8U57mwyXc3awHWaYQW7Gm49_iwhj61C33dn-7av5PjKfe5VUYULO1rIIvyjfu-qmhl2V094DPKOQXe04GQeA9PBKqWcC_PauqkwVVOx4ELhHz7D8AgY3pWTizBYpONPZ36SaDPJvBOGg/w653-h406/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_004.png" width="653" /></a></div><div>Candidates should possess the requisite qualifications & relevant experiences (where required) for on-line registration of application [https://www.aai.aero/en/careers/recruitment].</div><div>Departmental Candidates possessing recognized degrees as per the required minimum qualification, obtained through part-time/correspondence/distance education mode shall be eligible to apply.</div><div><br /></div><div>Note: -</div><div>Candidates applying for the post of Jr. Assistant (Fire Service) must not have undergone any major operation by virtue of which his/her physical fitness to work in fire service has been impaired. Candidates should be capable of undergoing physical strain for prolonged periods. Physical deformity, chronic diseases, colour blindness, night blindness, squint eye, flat foot, bow legs, knocking knee and refractive error will be considered as disqualification.</div><div><br /></div><div>II. SELECTION PROCEDURE</div><div>A. Written Examination - Computer Based (Online):</div><div>The level for written examination for the post of Jr. Assistant (Fire Service) will be</div><div>as under:</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhLFViT6YTTNApQfdUQf7llh8mu_Qk5A8r_AC54LYdzdjQ9oEUSRBgGSuDlwMOfOFf-v2k8shqYv3gd2LUKsjX9H1KhYQef0_bvgcBNqBhqCpaNQuKJTPoIUeopHm3KzvlcdRtoF_aAwQSq5Iv3sLF0s9h7Sp08PP9tSn27kCUBAyJiINmbmCEZQw/s449/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_004.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="101" data-original-width="449" height="147" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhLFViT6YTTNApQfdUQf7llh8mu_Qk5A8r_AC54LYdzdjQ9oEUSRBgGSuDlwMOfOFf-v2k8shqYv3gd2LUKsjX9H1KhYQef0_bvgcBNqBhqCpaNQuKJTPoIUeopHm3KzvlcdRtoF_aAwQSq5Iv3sLF0s9h7Sp08PP9tSn27kCUBAyJiINmbmCEZQw/w653-h147/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_004.png" width="653" /></a></div><div>The level for written examination for the post of Sr. Assistant (Electronics) and</div><div>Sr. Assistant (Accounts) will be as under: -</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgE4tjohlLOUa51-qz8C8cXYMdoR32TLDbOVw2sqhom7b1VOoh_qQqIVfTJ3SGWK88TC-9acFZnR7XVKkYuXgEca6m9s54nbIjaLNL7-UWEysrNnSQ4h0HR1CbBwrFHURBQr47Xl0W8ZrS0iXQfv1_jWubpHlNUc8ENgwXeAb7ID2Ax6OBfZtVC8Q/s447/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_005.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="87" data-original-width="447" height="127" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgE4tjohlLOUa51-qz8C8cXYMdoR32TLDbOVw2sqhom7b1VOoh_qQqIVfTJ3SGWK88TC-9acFZnR7XVKkYuXgEca6m9s54nbIjaLNL7-UWEysrNnSQ4h0HR1CbBwrFHURBQr47Xl0W8ZrS0iXQfv1_jWubpHlNUc8ENgwXeAb7ID2Ax6OBfZtVC8Q/w652-h127/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_005.png" width="652" /></a></div><div>The minimum pass marks will be 50 out of 100 for General/OBC/EWS/Ex-Serviceman/dependent of Ex-Serviceman killed in action candidates and 40 out of 100 for SC, ST candidates. The time duration for Computer Based (Online) Test will be 2 Hrs. No negative marking for incorrect answers.</div><div><br /></div><div>B. Certificate/Document Verification. (applicable for all cadres)</div><div><br /></div><div>C. Driving Test [For Junior Assistant - Fire Service only]</div><div><br /></div><div>D. Medical fitness/Physical Measurement Test</div><div>[For Junior Assistant -Fire Service only]</div><div>The candidates for the post of Jr. Assistant (Fire Service) upon passing the Computer Based (Online) Test, shall appear in the driving test. The driving test will be conducted on Light Motor Vehicle. Candidate cleared pass in the Driving Test shall only be allowed to appear for Physical Endurance Test.</div><div>E. Physical Efficiency Test [For Junior Assistant -Fire Service only]</div><div>Physical Efficiency Test for Female candidates:</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEg4EdKZOWZDWTEHIApmKY9ajIkdE3aS3ND37y0CyiwLX_n-Pk2qcYdSuZ67FchUCZFuLblqKfw48H8EDg02-1SkY3OvxWItDrugp-l29iiC52ZoOy2YrQAG5iqALCywO6gWxzGO-Yko9KINjAFZCQ6W-TSrQWhOHfgpd-62R3rpEqkxeiknUqEOfQ/s511/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_005.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="166" data-original-width="511" height="212" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEg4EdKZOWZDWTEHIApmKY9ajIkdE3aS3ND37y0CyiwLX_n-Pk2qcYdSuZ67FchUCZFuLblqKfw48H8EDg02-1SkY3OvxWItDrugp-l29iiC52ZoOy2YrQAG5iqALCywO6gWxzGO-Yko9KINjAFZCQ6W-TSrQWhOHfgpd-62R3rpEqkxeiknUqEOfQ/w653-h212/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_005.png" width="653" /></a></div>Physical Efficiency Test for Male candidates:<div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi2yZzUb0tDTLwnJuhBfitdvrlUyfG7-4v6mIsEmurG-zi4JrJKGj9DPr3loaLZ8PhC9mLnknqqP3ynYN6z6kd8DRuZ7WSBXoZe4HIjtLS-BnfGBrNloqbyRs92Z2YW_tjwWA_RzMb4ewqQ5BSNL3pHXbOwLESrNvlAO7nlB40GbJrF_xWpnPWGUQ/s514/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_006.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="170" data-original-width="514" height="215" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi2yZzUb0tDTLwnJuhBfitdvrlUyfG7-4v6mIsEmurG-zi4JrJKGj9DPr3loaLZ8PhC9mLnknqqP3ynYN6z6kd8DRuZ7WSBXoZe4HIjtLS-BnfGBrNloqbyRs92Z2YW_tjwWA_RzMb4ewqQ5BSNL3pHXbOwLESrNvlAO7nlB40GbJrF_xWpnPWGUQ/w651-h215/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_006.png" width="651" /></a></div><div>Note</div><div>• 100 Meters running is required to be completed in 16 seconds for male and 19</div><div>seconds for female, failing which he/she will be disqualified.</div><div><br /></div><div>• Total height of Rope and pole shall be after adding 2 meters. Example: for male</div><div>2+6=8 meters & for female 2+4=6 meters.</div><div><br /></div><div>• Ladder to be pitched at the height of 6 meters from ground level.</div><div>Candidates shall secure minimum 60 marks out of 100 in Physical Endurance Test.</div><div>The candidate who does not fulfil the eligibility criteria at any stage mentioned above will not be considered for the next stage of selection process and therefore, will be disqualified and shall not be allowed in further selection process.</div><div><br /></div><div>Appointment to the post of Junior Assistant (Fire Service) is subject to fulfilling all eligibility conditions and successful completion and passing of 18 weeks of Basic Training Course in which 02 weeks training should be exclusively meant for imparting on maintenance and driving on Heavy Duty Vehicle from AIRPORTS AUTHORITY OF INDIA Training Institutes. During training, incumbent is entitled for stipend of ₹ 25,000/- (Rupees Twenty-Five Thousand) per month as per the rules. AIRPORTS AUTHORITY OF INDIA will not be responsible for any injury caused during the course of selection process.</div><div><br /></div><div>III. APPLICATION FEE</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhefvc-RcUx6RodTk5_bEUtEz9l472InsDL0uL3qJOlAfGSjD0bU3NQL_4ydNgxeCppI19PKR127aaRGP4bCiMTfGKRwKEo8_0nqWZgKTiVN1LK6nERzgFCofFQWUlrqHgKZuknLSuP2JzeC_Cp4a-AWCReLrP1VUhQtd_ScHRsw18SLUxlG27dRg/s422/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_006.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="89" data-original-width="422" height="137" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhefvc-RcUx6RodTk5_bEUtEz9l472InsDL0uL3qJOlAfGSjD0bU3NQL_4ydNgxeCppI19PKR127aaRGP4bCiMTfGKRwKEo8_0nqWZgKTiVN1LK6nERzgFCofFQWUlrqHgKZuknLSuP2JzeC_Cp4a-AWCReLrP1VUhQtd_ScHRsw18SLUxlG27dRg/w656-h137/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_006.png" width="656" /></a></div><div>1. No application fee is required to be paid by Female/SC/ST/PWD/Ex-Serviceman/Dependent of Ex-Serviceman killed in action/EWS candidates/apprentices completing 1 year of apprenticeship training in AAI.</div><div><br /></div><div>2. AAI will accept Application Fee through online net banking/credit card/debit card/UPI only.</div><div><br /></div><div>3. Fees once paid will not be refunded under any circumstances.</div><div>Candidates are advised not to respond to unscrupulous advertisements appearing in any newspaper/websites/mobile apps etc. For authenticity of any information, candidates may visit AAI website www.aai.aero only for detailed advertisement.</div><div>IV. GUIDELINES FOR FILLING ONLINE APPLICATION</div><div>IMPORTANT DATES</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjO9ZfhQeQ-3-1hMtQBd77j4k6k1SxnCrVxasBbs5GwrewsdU3c6lOaBTM5YBt7dByNjKX85gfBKoaA5RJqmggqxfGOoFFPa_d-btbcjcKczHJEBwcly0j4C-p6LF4hM8vnNEPGqilTmmHHqLfA5wKXqS5s6bkbGZTY2jN75NCz0FuLqAlV6mlM7w/s509/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_007.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="139" data-original-width="509" height="176" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjO9ZfhQeQ-3-1hMtQBd77j4k6k1SxnCrVxasBbs5GwrewsdU3c6lOaBTM5YBt7dByNjKX85gfBKoaA5RJqmggqxfGOoFFPa_d-btbcjcKczHJEBwcly0j4C-p6LF4hM8vnNEPGqilTmmHHqLfA5wKXqS5s6bkbGZTY2jN75NCz0FuLqAlV6mlM7w/w648-h176/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_007.png" width="648" /></a></div><div>Eligible applicants are required to apply through Online Application Link available on www.aai.aero under tab “Careers”. No application through any other mode will be accepted. No documents are required to be sent to AAI in connection with the application, other than specified.</div><div>Please go through the detailed instructions given in the recruitment notification/advertisement and on the main page of the online application form.</div><div><br /></div><div>1. Before registering/submitting online applications on the website the candidates should possess the following:</div><div><br /></div><div>a) Active E-mail ID & Mobile Number: candidates should have valid personal E-mail ID & Mobile number. Candidate must ensure that both mail id & mobile number are active during the entire recruitment process. Application sequence number, User ID, Password and all other important communication will be sent on the same registered e-mail ID (please ensure that email sent to this mail box is not redirected to your junk/spam folder) & mobile number.</div><div><br /></div><div>b) While applying online, candidates should keep the scanned/digital copy of their recent passport size color photograph (white/light-colored background and not older than 6 months) and their signature (signed on white paper with Blank ink pen) in .jpg or jpeg format only, having maximum file size 100 KB for uploading</div><div><br /></div><div>with online application. Photograph in cap/hat/dark glasses will not be acceptable. Religious headwear is allowed but it must not cover the face.</div><div><br /></div><div>c) Scanned copy of all relevant documents/details relating to eligibility criteria viz., educational qualification, caste certificate, experience certificate (wherein applicable), domicile certificate, driving license, desirable qualification, details of physical measurements, discharge certificate in case of Ex-Servicemen, etc., should be available with the candidate for submitting in online application form. Each certificate should be in JPG/JPEG/PDF format.</div><div><br /></div><div>d) The candidate should ensure a facility to take Printout of the application form on their own.</div><div><br /></div><div>e) The process of submitting online application is given below...</div><div><br /></div><div>1. Candidates agreeing to Terms & Conditions of the recruitment process may apply by clicking (√) in the Box & press 'START' button.</div><div><br /></div><div>2. The candidate should fill up all the desired information i.e. Post Applied, candidate name, email id, mobile number, etc. correctly.</div><div><br /></div><div>3. Sign-up by filling-up Post Applied, Category, Candidate Name, Mobile Number and E-Mail ID After clicking SUBMIT button/ tab, the candidates will receive Application Sequence No (User ID) & Password on their registered E-mail ID during Signing. Now, candidate has to Click "Log Out" tab (given on top right corner) and re-log in for Step-II. On completion of Step-I, Sign- Up mail will be received in candidate’s registered Email ID/mobile number confirming his singed-up along with the User ID (Application Sequence No.) and password</div><div><br /></div><div>4. After signed-up, candidate has to Re-login and click on “Go to Application Form” icon at top right corner, select his/her category and other mandatory details and complete Personal Details, Qualification Details, Upload photo/signature) and submission of Fee (wherein applicable) through Online mode.</div><div><br /></div><div>5. Instructions regarding scanning of Photograph and Signature: Candidates should upload the scanned (digital) image of their photograph and signature in Jpg/jpeg format, as per the process given below:</div><div>STEPSTEP:: II (Sign(Sign--Up)Up) STEPSTEP:: III (Filling I (Filling –– up of application)up of application) Photograph Image:</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ Photograph must be a recent passport size color picture on light background (not older than 03 Months).</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ Look straight at the camera with a relaxed face.</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ The size of the scanned image should be up to 100 kb in jpg/ jpeg format only.</div><div>Signature image:</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ The applicant has to sign on white paper with Black ink pen.</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ The signature must be signed only by the applicant and not by any other person.</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ Please scan the signature area only and not the entire page.</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ Size of file should be up to 100 kb in Jpg/jpeg format only. Certificate image/pdf:</div><div>Please scan and upload relevant certificate (self-attested) in the online portal as per requirements.</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ Matriculation Certificate as Date of Birth Proof</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ Educational qualification Certificate in respect of post applied for including mark sheets if any.</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ Experience Certificate, Computer Training Course certificate (wherever applicable)</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ Caste Certificate. (Computerized format issued by the competent local authorized Govt. Authorities.)</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ Disability Certificate in the prescribed proforma issued by the Competent Authority. (wherever applicable) as per Government guidelines.</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ Domicile Certificate. (Computerized format issued by the local Govt. authorities.</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ Income and Asset Certificate issued by a Competent Authority (Not below the rank of Tahsildar) in the format prescribed by Government of India for EWS candidates.</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ Driving License for Junior Assistant (Fire Service) (Valid Heavy Vehicle Driving License; OR Valid Medium Vehicle Driving License issued at least one year before the date of Advertisement; OR Valid Light Motor Vehicle Driving License issued at least two years before the date of Advertisement.</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ In case of Ex-Servicemen, scanned copy of Discharge Certificate in the prescribed proforma from Competent Authority.</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ No Objection Certificate (applicable to candidates working in Govt./PSU etc).</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ AAI identity card for AAI employees (applicable for AAI staff).</div><div><br /></div><div>Size of the files should be max 1 MB (Only PDF, JPEG and JPG formats).</div><div><br /></div><div>6. CLICK PREVIEW Button to view the details entered.</div><div><br /></div><div>7. Please ensure that all aspects of the application and Photo/Sign/Other relevant documents before submitting.</div><div><br /></div><div>8. Please note that you cannot Edit/Modify your application once you click SUBMIT Button.</div><div><br /></div><div>9. Once the application is submitted, candidates automatically will be redirected to Payment gateway to deposit the application fee through online mode (wherever required).</div><div>10. Guidelines for remittance of fee are as under (if applicable):</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ Post submission, the candidate will be re-directed to Payment gateway to make the online payment of application fees.</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ Kindly verify the details and make the payment for application fees via the different payment modes.</div><div><br /></div><div>✓ After successful payment of application fees, the candidate will be redirected to his application form.</div><div>Technical queries/ clarifications relating to the filling up of ON-LINE APPLICATION, please feel free to contact through Helpdesk tab integrated in the Application portal or Helpdesk Number: 9513166392</div><div>NOTE:</div><div><br /></div><div>1. Candidates on Their Own Interest Are Advised to Apply & Submit Application Promptly and Not to Wait till The Last Date/Time for Applying Online. AAI, ER Shall Not Be Responsible If Candidates Are Not Able to Submit Their Applications on Account of The Last-Minute Rush.</div><div><br /></div><div>2. Please retain print-out of application form & payment acknowledgement slip for future references.</div><div><br /></div><div>3. Please do not send hard copy of the application form or any documents to the office of AAI, Eastern Region.</div><div><br /></div><div>4. Responsibility of receiving, downloading and printing of E-Admit Card for On-Line Examination or any other information etc., lies with the Candidate/ applicant only. AAI, ER is not responsible for any loss of E-mail sent, due to invalid/wrong E-mail ID provided by the candidate or for delay/non-receipt of the information or in case of candidate fails to access his / her mail or AAI website on time.</div><div><br /></div><div>5. Candidates can apply for multiple posts with separate registration for each post, subject to the condition that they fulfil all other eligibility criteria required for the post and deposit the fee separately for each post as applicable.</div><div><br /></div><div>V. ACTION AGAINST MISCONDUCT</div><div>1. Candidates are advised to furnish correct information and should not provide any false documents/information while filling up the “on-line” application.</div><div><br /></div><div>2. At any stage of recruitment or later, if a candidate is found guilty of any misconduct such as:</div><div>a. Impersonating or procuring impersonating by any person; or</div><div><br /></div><div>b. Resorting to any form/Using undue influence for his/her candidature by any means; or</div><div><br /></div><div>c. Submitted of false certificates/documents/information or suppressing any information at any stage; or</div><div><br /></div><div>d. Giving wrong information regarding his/her category (SC/ST/OBC(NCL)/EW/Ex-Serviceman/Dependent of Ex-Serviceman killed in action/AAI Apprentice)/ Experience Certificate etc. while appearing in the examination or thereafter; his/her candidature will be summarily rejected and will be terminated from service, apart from initiating any other action or taking legal recourse as deemed fit.</div><div><br /></div><div>VI. GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS</div><div>1. Only candidates who are domicile of West Bengal, Bihar, Odisha, Chhattisgarh,</div><div>Jharkhand, Andaman & Nicobar Islands and Sikkim States can apply for the above</div><div>posts.</div><div><br /></div><div>2. Before applying for the post, the candidates should ensure that he/she fulfills the</div><div>eligibility and other norms mentioned in the advertisement. He/she may cross-check</div><div>the information furnished in the application form before finally submitting the same</div><div>as no correction would be possible later.</div><div><br /></div><div>3. The eligibility with respect to Age and Educational Qualification will be determined as on 30.09.2022. The candidates whose result for final year examination is awaited, are also allowed to appear in the computer based/online examination for above posts provided they produce final result before appearing for physical endurance test or</div><div>document verification, whichever is applicable, if shortlisted for further selection procedure.</div><div><br /></div><div>4. Candidates employed in Govt. Departments (Centre /State)/PSUs/Autonomous bodies must produce No Objection Certificate (NOC) from their current employer at the time of verification of documents. In case, the candidate fails to produce the NOC, his/her candidature will not be considered. Other claims/ disclaimers such as undertaking to resign in the event of selection, acknowledgement copy of applied NOC/Resignation Letter, Experience Certificate etc. shall not be entertained as a substitute for NOC.</div><div><br /></div><div>5. Candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC will have to produce his/her original caste certificate from the duly recognized authorities, along with attested copy of the same, at the time of verification of documents failing which his/her candidature shall be cancelled and he/she will not be admitted for further selection process.</div><div><br /></div><div>6. Candidates belonging to EWS category shall have to submit the EWS certificate for the current FY (2022-23) in prescribed format issued by the Competent Authority so as to prove he/she belongs to “EWS Category” at the time of documents verification failing which his/her candidature shall be cancelled and he/she will not be admitted for further selection process.</div><div><br /></div><div>7. The OBC Candidates availing reservation will have to produce latest OBC CERTIFICATE with “NON CREAMY LAYER STATUS” as prescribed by the Government of India at the time of verification of the documents.</div><div><br /></div><div>8. The SC/ST/OBC(NCL)/EWS/ Disability/Experience certificate issued by the Competent Authority should be either in Hindi or English. Any variation in the caste name will not be accepted.</div><div><br /></div><div>9. Candidates applying after completion of Apprenticeship under AAI, shall submit Apprentice Certificate issued by AAI.</div><div><br /></div><div>10. Only those candidates who are fulfilling all eligibility criteria will be allowed to appear for computer based/online examination at their own expense. In case of candidates applying for the post of Jr. Assistant (Fire Service), they will have to appear for the computer based/online exam and physical measurement, driving test, physical endurance test, etc, on their own expenses.</div><div><br /></div><div>11. The education and other qualifications must be obtained from Government recognized Institutions/Universities as per statutes.</div><div><br /></div><div>12. Specializations mandated as essential qualification, candidates are required to submit a certificate from the University/Institution clearly mentioning as the specialization in the qualifying degree.</div><div><br /></div><div>13. Candidate must specifically indicate the percentage of marks obtained [calculated to nearest two decimals] in the relevant column of the application. Universities/ institutions awarding marks in CGPA/OGPA/DGPA/CPI etc. same should be converted into percentage and duly certified document issued by the University/Institution, equivalent percentage of marks, should be submitted at the time of documents verification.</div><div><br /></div><div>14. Rounding off the percentage of marks will not be acceptable under any circumstances for consideration for appointment i.e. 49.99% will be treated as less than 50%</div><div><br /></div><div>15. Online Test will be bilingual i.e. Hindi and English.</div><div><br /></div><div>16. AAI reserves the right to increase or decrease number of examination centers depending upon the number of applicants/ candidates and in that case, candidates may be asked to appear at any place of examination centers other than specified by them.</div><div><br /></div><div>17. The date of declaration of result/issuance of marks sheet shall be deemed to be date of acquiring the qualification and there shall be no relaxation on this account.</div><div><br /></div><div>18. The provisional selection of the candidates will be as per the merit list, prepared on the basis of their performance in the On-line examination/physical Measurement and Endurance test/Driving test as applicable for the post, subject to meeting all other eligibility criteria prescribe for the post.</div><div><br /></div><div>19. Roll numbers of the candidates provisionally selected for the appointment will be declared on AAI website. The offer letter will be sent to the provisionally selected candidates on their registered e-mail ids only.</div><div><br /></div><div>20. The candidates selected for the post of Senior Assistant (Electronics) and Junior Assistant (Fire Services) shall have to execute a surety bond as follows: -</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgAwlCDIUhShYB94_X3GcB-KZ-69YcoyViYdJ1QOLjeAJ4-GG7D9PxYUiVsVJvrHCPFuCHWCjgbeGyGdfP2SWRiVHqDfrOtmXWjh5fviqgVvx8mGc4N8ixQ7PSK4Ud1o1meTW4XHS_eIlND1mW0j2YkgKRDg9ZldE1qDuouAltfxj9z1xI15CxZ0w/s455/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_013.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="152" data-original-width="455" height="213" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgAwlCDIUhShYB94_X3GcB-KZ-69YcoyViYdJ1QOLjeAJ4-GG7D9PxYUiVsVJvrHCPFuCHWCjgbeGyGdfP2SWRiVHqDfrOtmXWjh5fviqgVvx8mGc4N8ixQ7PSK4Ud1o1meTW4XHS_eIlND1mW0j2YkgKRDg9ZldE1qDuouAltfxj9z1xI15CxZ0w/w638-h213/Notification-AAI-Junior-Assistant-Senior-Assistant-Vacancy_013.png" width="638" /></a></div><div>21. In case of Ex-Servicemen, attach copy of Discharge Certificate.</div><div><br /></div><div>22. In case of employees coming from PSUs (following IDA Pay-Scales): Pay protection upto a maximum of 03 (three) increments in the form of Personal Pay will be given to all eligible employees who have been recruited in AAI through Direct Recruitment and that the initial basic pay of the candidate will be fixed at the starting level of the scale to which he/she has been selected. Pay for this purpose means Basic Pay. The said component of Personal Pay will be absorbed during fixation of pay in higher scale/pay revision. Personal pay will be shown as a separate component and will not count for any purpose including DA.</div><div><br /></div><div>23. In case of employees coming from Central/State Government Ministries/ Department (following CDA Pay-Scales): Pay protection upto a maximum of 03 (three) increments in the form of Personal Pay will be given to all eligible employees who have been recruited in AAI through Direct Recruitment and that the initial basic pay of the</div><div><br /></div><div>candidate will be fixed at the starting level of the scale to which he/she has been selected. Pay for this purpose means Basic Pay + DA.</div><div><br /></div><div>The said component of personal pay will be absorbed during fixation of pay in higher scale/pay revision. Personal pay will be shown as a separate component and will not count for any purpose including DA.</div><div><br /></div><div>24. AAI will not bear any liability on account of salary/leave salary/pension contribution etc., if any, of previous employment of any candidate already working in Central Government/State Government/Autonomous Body/Public Sector Undertaking.</div><div><br /></div><div>25. Candidates are advised to apply on-line much before the closing date of application mentioned in this advertisement and not to wait till the last date to avoid the possibility of disconnection/inability/failure to log on the AAI’s website on account of heavy load on internet/website jam/disconnection.</div><div><br /></div><div>26. AAI will not take any responsibility for the candidates not being able to submit their applications within the last date on account of the aforesaid reasons or for any other reason beyond the control of AAI.</div><div><br /></div><div>27. The computer based/online test will be held in Kolkata/Bhubaneswar /Patna/Raipur/Ranchi/Port Blair/ Gangtok</div><div><br /></div><div>28. Mere fulfilling of minimum qualification, experience and job requirement will not vest any right on candidates for being called for CBT/Physical Endurance test. No interim correspondence will be entertained.</div><div><br /></div><div>29. Candidature of the registered candidates is liable to be rejected at any stage of recruitment process or after recruitment or joining if any information provided by the candidate is found false or is not found in conformity with eligibility criteria mentioned in the advertisement.</div><div>30. No correspondence will be entertained from the candidates found ineligible and not called for CBT/physical endurance test.</div><div><br /></div><div>31. The decision of AAI in all matters regarding eligibility of the candidate, selection and rejection of candidates, mode of selection, the stages at which such scrutiny of eligibility is to be undertaken, the documents is to be produced for the purpose of the conduct of selection and any other matter relating to recruitment, will be final and binding on all the candidates. The AAI reserves the right to fix the standard and specifications for screening and calling the number of candidates for computer based/online exam and/or physical endurance/driving test.</div><div><br /></div><div>32. The AAI reserves the right to restrict the number of candidates to be called for test and change of exam centre on the basis of any other norms decided by the Authority at a later date.</div><div><br /></div><div>33. The Admit cards for written tests and letters to be issued to the candidates are purely provisional. However, in case any ineligible candidate has been issued admit card and has appeared in the On-line examination/ test etc or allowed to join AAI, his/her candidature will automatically be treated as cancelled at any stage of the recruitment / service in AAI on grounds of his/her ineligibility.</div><div><br /></div><div>34. AAI reserves that right to modify / alter / restrict / enlarge / cancel the recruitment process, if need so arises, without issuing any further notice or assigning any reasons thereof. The decision of the Management will be final and no appeal will be entertained.</div><div><br /></div><div>35. No TA / DA will be paid for appearing in the computer based/On-line test.</div><div><br /></div><div>36. Canvassing in any form of bringing influence will be treated as a disqualification.</div><div><br /></div><div>37. The decision of the selection committee of AAI is not liable for challenge and same</div><div>shall stand final and binding of each candidate.</div><div><br /></div><div>38. Airports Authority of India will have full discretion to fix minimum qualifying marks</div><div>and other eligibility criteria.</div><div><br /></div><div>39. Court of Jurisdiction for any dispute will be at Kolkata.</div><div><br /></div><div>40. Please do visit the website regularly for further updates.</div><div><br /></div><div>41. Further notifications/corrigendum in this regard, if any, will be put up on AAI website only.</div><div><br /></div><div>42. In case of any dispute, English version of notice and communication will be treated as valid.</div><div>DISCLAIMER</div><div><br /></div><div>On-Line Application validation rules and design are based on recruitment Advertisement (Advt. No. ER/01/2022) published in AAI website www.aai.aero under tab “CAREERS”. However, candidates are advised to read the advertisement/notification carefully and should ensure that he/she fulfils eligibility criteria as mentioned in advertisement before applying online. The application submitted through on-line form does not imply that candidate has fulfilled all the criteria given in the advertisement. Your candidature in the whole recruitment/selection process is “PURELY PROVISIONAL” pending scrutiny of your eligibility as mentioned in the Advertisement (ADVT. NO. ER/01/2022) for the post applied at later stages of recruitment/selection process. In case, it is found that the candidate does not fulfil the eligibility criteria as per advertisement and any information provided by the candidate is found to be false or is not in conformity with the eligibility criteria mentioned in advertisement including age, category, sub-category, application fee, essential educational qualification(s) and experience etc., prescribed for the post his/her candidature shall be rejected at any stage of selection process and even after appointment.</div><div><br /></div><div>Regional Executive Director</div><div>Airports Authority of India, Eastern Region</div><div><br /></div><div>“AAI STRIVES TO HAVE A WORKFORCE WHICH REFLECTS GENDER</div><div>BALANCE AND WOMEN CANDIDATES ARE ENCOURAGED TO APPLY”</div><div style="text-align: center;">***</div>

AIRPORTS AUTHORITY OF INDIA (A Category–1‘Mini Ratna’ Public Sector Enterprise) East…

ಚುನಾವಣಾ ವೆಚ್ಚದ ಲೆಕ್ಕ ಮತ್ತು ಆ ವೆಚ್ಚದ ಗರಿಷ್ಠ ಮೊತ್ತ.-

<div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhQAah0izgOVJjuk5MiUdLuI65Dpl013kc2Bu3oYvrQxPaipiG6AokQZhIa7IC_wpQGxGZ7U86XqZ0wie4vUWA6cyV7YG7qZMvT66jLiRSde4kW7MDGbImMNy0MZYSE74foemSBG7oTnKcTjShIzabzudUYsXoX2k57WTMMDq596-yCxXeDrGFtNQ/s1060/Poster_Maker2023_01_23_04_10_32.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="232" data-original-width="1060" height="144" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhQAah0izgOVJjuk5MiUdLuI65Dpl013kc2Bu3oYvrQxPaipiG6AokQZhIa7IC_wpQGxGZ7U86XqZ0wie4vUWA6cyV7YG7qZMvT66jLiRSde4kW7MDGbImMNy0MZYSE74foemSBG7oTnKcTjShIzabzudUYsXoX2k57WTMMDq596-yCxXeDrGFtNQ/w657-h144/Poster_Maker2023_01_23_04_10_32.png" width="657" /></a></div><p> (1)  ಈ  ಅಧಿನಿಯಮದ ಅಡಿಯಲ್ಲಿ  ಜಿಲ್ಲಾ  ಪಂಚಾಯತಿ  ಅಥವಾ  ತಾಲ್ಲೂಕು  ಪಂಚಾಯಿತಿ  ಚುನಾವಣೆಯಲ್ಲಿ  ಪ್ರತಿಯೊಬ್ಬ  ಅಭ್ಯರ್ಥಿಯು ತಾನಾಗಿಯೇ ಆಗಲಿ ಅಥವಾ ತನ್ನ ಚುನಾವಣಾ ಏಜಂಟಿನಿಂದಾಗಲಿ, ಎಲ್ಲಾ ವೆಚ್ಚಗಳಿಗೆ, ತನ್ನನ್ನು ನಾಮನಿರ್ದೇಶನ ಮಾಡಿದ  ದಿನಾಂಕದಿಂದ  ಅದರ  ಫಲಿತಾಂಶವು  ಘೋಷಿತವಾದ  ದಿನಾಂಕದ  ನಡುವೆ,  ಎರಡೂ  ದಿನಾಂಕಗಳು ಸೇರಿದಂತೆ,  ಚುನಾವಣೆಯ  ಸಂಬಂಧದಲ್ಲಿ  ತಾನು  ಅಥವಾ  ತನ್ನ  ಚುನಾವಣಾ  ಏಜೆಂಟನು  ವಹಿಸಿದ  ಅಥವಾ ಪ್ರಾಧೀಕರಿಸಿದ ಎಲ್ಲ ವೆಚ್ಚಗಳ ಬಗ್ಗೆ ಪ್ರತ್ಯೇಕವಾದ ಮತ್ತು ಸರಿಯಾದ ಲೆಕ್ಕವನ್ನು ಇಡತಕ್ಕದ್ದು. <br />(2)  (1)ನೇ  ಉಪ  ಪ್ರಕರಣದಲ್ಲಿ  ಉಲ್ಲೇಖಿಸಿದ  ಅಭ್ಯರ್ಥಿಯ  ಚುನಾವಣೆಯ  ಸಂಬಂಧದಲ್ಲಿ  ಒಂದು  ರಾಜಕೀಯ ಪಕ್ಷವು  ಅಥವಾ  ಯವುದೇ  ಇತರ  ಅಸೋಶಿಯೇಷನ್  ಅಥವಾ  ನಿಕಾಯ  ಅಥವಾ  ವ್ಯಕ್ತಿಗಳು  ಅಥವಾ  ಯಾವೊಬ್ಬ ವ್ಯಕ್ತಿಯು (ಅಭ್ಯರ್ಥಿ ಅಥವಾ ಆತನ ಚುನಾವಣಾ ಏಜೆಂಟನನ್ನು ಹೊರತುಪಡಿಸಿ) ವಹಿಸಿದ ಅಥವಾ ಪ್ರಾಧೀಕರಿಸಿದ ಯಾವುದೇ  ವೆಚ್ಚವನ್ನು  ಅಭ್ಯರ್ಥಿಯು  ಅಥವಾ  ಆತನ  ಚುನಾವಣಾ  ಏಜೆಂಟನು  (1)ನೇ  ಉಪ  ಪ್ರಕರಣದ ಉದ್ದೇಶಕ್ಕಾಗಿ ಚುನಾವಣೆಗೆ ಸಂಬಂಧಿಸಿದಂತೆ ವಹಿಸಿದ ಅಥವಾ ಪ್ರಾಧೀಕರಿಸಿದ ವೆಚ್ಚವೆಂದು ಭಾವಿಸತಕ್ಕದ್ದಲ್ಲ.    <br />ವಿವರಣೆ  1:  ಈ  ಉಪಪ್ರಕರಣದ  ಉದ್ದೇಶಕ್ಕಾಗಿ  ರಾಜಕೀಯ  ಪಕ್ಷವು,  ತತ್ಕಾಲದಲ್ಲಿ  ಜಾರಿಯಲ್ಲಿರುವ  1968ರ ಚುನಾವಣಾ ಚಿಹ್ನೆಗಳು (ಮೀಸಲಾತಿ ಮತ್ತು ಹಂಚಿಕೆ) ಆದೇಶದಲ್ಲಿನ ಅರ್ಥವನ್ನೇ ಹೊಂದಿರತಕ್ಕದ್ದು.    <br />ವಿವರಣೆ 2: ಸಂದೇಹಗಳ ನಿವಾರಣೆಗಾಗಿ, ಸರ್ಕಾರದ ಸೇವೆಯಲ್ಲಿರುವ ಅಥವಾ ಜಿಲ್ಲಾ ಪಂಚಾಯಿತಿ ಅಥವಾ ಸಂದರ್ಭಾನುಸಾರವಾಗಿ  ತಾಲ್ಲೂಕು  ಪಂಚಾಯಿತಿ  ಸೇವೆಯಲ್ಲಿರುವ  ಯಾವೊಬ್ಬ  ವ್ಯಕ್ತಿಯು,  (ಅಭ್ಯರ್ಥಿಯು  ಧಾರಣ ಮಾಡಿದ  ಹುದ್ದೆಯ  ಕಾರಣದಿಂದಾಗಲಿ  ಅಥವಾ  ಇತರ  ಯಾವುದೇ  ಕಾರಣದಿಂದಾಗಲಿ)  ಯಾವೊಬ್ಬ  ಅಭ್ಯರ್ಥಿ ಅಥವಾ  ಅವನ  ಚುನಾವಣಾ  ಏಜೆಂಟ್  ಅಥವಾ  ಅಭ್ಯರ್ಥಿಯ  ಅಥವಾ  ಅವನ  ಚುನಾವಣಾ  ಏಜೆಂಟನ ಸಮ್ಮತಿಯೊಡನೆ ಕಾರ್ಯನಿರ್ವಹಿಸುವ ಇತರ ಯಾವೊಬ್ಬ ವ್ಯಕ್ತಿಗಾಗಿ, ವ್ಯಕ್ತಿಗೆ, ಅಥವಾ ವ್ಯಕ್ತಿಯ ಸಂಬಂಧದಲ್ಲಿ ತನ್ನ ಅಧಿಕೃತ  ಕರ್ತವ್ಯದ  ನೆರವೇರಿಕೆಯಲ್ಲಿ  ಅಥವಾ  ನೆರವೇರಿಕೆ  ಎಂದು  ತಾತ್ಪರ್ಯವಾಗುವಲ್ಲಿ  ಮಾಡಿದ  ಯಾವುದೇ ವ್ಯವಸ್ಥೆ,  ಒದಗಿಸಿದ  ಸೌಲಭ್ಯಗಳು  ಅಥವಾ  ಮಾಡಿದ  ಯಾವುದೇ  ಇತರ  ಕಾರ್ಯ  ಅಥವಾ  ಕೃತ್ಯದ  ಸಂಬಂಧದಲ್ಲಿ ವಹಿಸಿದ  ಯಾವುದೇ  ವೆಚ್ಚವನ್ನು,  ಈ  ಪ್ರಕರಣದ  ಉದ್ದೇಶಕ್ಕಾಗಿ  ಒಬ್ಬ  ಅಭ್ಯರ್ಥಿಯು  ಅಥವಾ  ಚುನಾವಣಾ ಏಜೆಂಟನು,  ಚುನಾವಣೆಯ  ಸಂಬಂಧದಲ್ಲಿ  ವಹಿಸಿದ  ಅಥವಾ  ಪ್ರಾಧೀಕರಿಸಿದ  ವೆಚ್ಚವೆಂಬುದಾಗಿ  ಭಾವಿಸತಕ್ಕದ್ದಲ್ಲ ಎಂದು ಈ ಮೂಲಕ ಘೋಷಿಸಲಾಗಿದೆ. <br />(3) ಲೆಕ್ಕಪತ್ರವು, ನಿಯಮಿಸಬಹುದಾದ ಅಂತಹ ವಿವರಗಳನ್ನು ಒಳಗೊಂಡಿರತಕ್ಕದ್ದು. <br />(4) ಸದರಿ ಒಟ್ಟು ವೆಚ್ಚವು ನಿಯಮಿಸಬಹುದಾದ ಅಂತಹ ಮೊತ್ತವನ್ನು ಮೀರತಕ್ಕದ್ದಲ್ಲ.]1 <br />1. 2017ರ ಅಧಿನಿಯಮ ಸಂಖ್ಯೆ 37ರ ಮೂಲಕ ದಿನಾಂಕ: 12.07.2017ರಿಂದ ಸೇರಿಸಲಾಗಿದೆ.      308ಬಿ.  ರಿಟರ್ನಿಂಗ್  ಆಫೀಸರನಿಗೆ  ಲೆಕ್ಕಪತ್ರಗಳನ್ನು  ಸಲ್ಲಿಸುವಿಕೆ.  ಈ  ಅಧಿನಿಯಮದ  ಅಡಿಯಲ್ಲಿ  ಜಿಲ್ಲಾ ಪಂಚಾಯತ್ಗೆ  ಅಥವಾ  ತಾಲ್ಲೂಕು  ಪಂಚಾಯತ್ಗೆ  ಸ್ಪರ್ಧೆಸಿರುವ  ಪ್ರತಿಯೊಬ್ಬ  ಅಭ್ಯರ್ಥಿಯು,  ಗೆದ್ದ  ಅಭ್ಯರ್ಥಿಯ ಚುನಾವಣೆಯ ದಿನಾಂಕದಿಂದ ಅಥವಾ ಒಂದು ವೇಳೆ ಚುನಾವಣೆಯಲ್ಲಿ ಒಂದಕ್ಕಿಂತ ಹೆಚ್ಚು ಗೆದ್ದ ಅಭ್ಯರ್ಥಿಗಳಿದ್ದರೆ ಮತ್ತು ಚುನಾವಣಾ ದಿನಾಂಕಗಳು ಬೇರೆ ಬೇರೆಯಾಗಿದ್ದರೆ, ಆ ಎರಡು ದಿನಾಂಕಗಳಲ್ಲಿ ತರುವಾಯದ ದಿನಾಂಕದಿಂದ ಮೂವತ್ತು  ದಿನಗಳೊಳಗೆ  ಈ  ಅಧಿನಿಯಮದ  ಅಡಿಯಲ್ಲಿ  ಒಂದು  ಚುನಾವಣೆಗೆ  ನೇಮಿಸಲಾದ  ರಿಟರ್ನಿಂಗ್ ಆಫೀಸರನಿಗೆ, 308ಎ ಪ್ರಕರಣದ ಅಡಿಯಲ್ಲಿ ತಾನು ಅಥವಾ ತನ್ನ ಚುನಾವಣಾ ಏಜಂಟನು ಇಟ್ಟಿರುವ ಲೆಕ್ಕಪತ್ರಗಳ ಯಥಾ ಪ್ರತಿಯಾಗಿರುವ ತನ್ನ ಚುನಾವಣಾ ವೆಚ್ಚದ ಲೆಕ್ಕಪತ್ರವನ್ನು ಸಲ್ಲಿಸತಕ್ಕದ್ದು.    <br />308ಸಿ. ಚುನಾವಣಾ ವೆಚ್ಚಗಳ ಲೆಕ್ಕಪತ್ರಗಳನ್ನು ಸಲ್ಲಿಸುವದಕ್ಕೆ ತಪ್ಪುವುದು. ಯಾವೊಬ್ಬ ವ್ಯಕ್ತಿಯು,   <br />(ಎ) ಈ  ಅಧಿನಿಯಮದ  ಅಡಿಯಲ್ಲಿ  ಅಗತ್ಯಪಡಿಸಲಾದಂಥ  ಸಮಯದೊಳಗೆ  ಮತ್ತು  ವಿಧಾನದಲ್ಲಿ ಚುನಾವಣಾ ವೆಚ್ಚದ ಲೆಕ್ಕಪತ್ರಗಳನ್ನು ಸಲ್ಲಿಸಲು ತಪ್ಪಿದ್ದಾನೆಂದು, ಮತ್ತು    <br />(ಬಿ) ತಪ್ಪಿರುವುದಕ್ಕೆ ಸರಿಯಾದ ಕಾರಣ ಅಥವಾ ಸಮರ್ಥನೆಯಿಲ್ಲವೆಂದು,     ಚುನಾವಣಾ  ಆಯೋಗಕ್ಕೆ  ಮನವರಿಕೆಯಾದರೆ,  ರಾಜ್ಯ  ಚುನಾವಣಾ  ಆಯೋಗವು  ರಾಜ್ಯ  ಪತ್ರದಲ್ಲಿ ಪ್ರಕಟಿತವಾದ  ಆದೇಶದ  ಮೂಲಕ  ಆತನನ್ನು  ಅನರ್ಹನೆಂದು  ಘೋಷಿಸತಕ್ಕದ್ದು  ಮತ್ತು  ಅಂತಹ  ಯಾವೊಬ್ಬ ವ್ಯಕ್ತಿಯು ಆದೇಶದ ದಿನಾಂಕದಿಂದ ಆರು ವರ್ಷಗಳ ಅವಧಿಗಾಗಿ ಅನರ್ಹನಾಗತಕ್ಕದ್ದು.   <br />308ಡಿ.  ರಿಟರ್ನಿಂಗ್ ಆಫೀಸರ್ ಮುಂತಾದವರು ರಾಜ್ಯ ಚುನಾವಣಾ ಆಯೋಗಕ್ಕೆ ಪ್ರತಿ ನಿಯೋಜನೆಯ ಮೇಲೆ ಇರುವುದಾಗಿ ಭಾವಿಸತಕ್ಕದ್ದು. ಜಿಲ್ಲಾ ಪಂಚಾಯತಿ, ತಾಲ್ಲೂಕು ಪಂಚಾಯತಿ ಮತ್ತು ಗ್ರಾಮ ಪಂಚಾಯತಿಯ ಎಲ್ಲಾ ಚುನಾವಣೆಗಳಲ್ಲಿ,  ಮತದಾರರ  ಪಟ್ಟಿಯನ್ನು  ತಯಾರಿಸುವ,  ಪರಿಷ್ಕರಿಸುವ  ಮತ್ತು  ತಿದ್ದುವ  ಮತ್ತು  ಚುನಾವಣೆ ನಡೆಸುವ  ಸಂಬಂಧದಲ್ಲಿ  ನಿಯೋಜಿತರಾದ  ರಿಟರ್ನಿಂಗ್  ಆಫೀಸರ್ಗಳು,  ಪ್ರಿಸೈಡಿಂಗ್  ಆಫೀಸರುಗಳು,  ಪೋಲಿಂಗ್ ಆಫೀಸರುಗಳು  ಮತ್ತು  ಇತರ  ಯಾರೇ  ಅಧಿಕಾರಿಗಳು  ಅಥವಾ  ಸಿಬ್ಬಂದಿಯು,  ಅವರು  ಹಾಗೆ  ನಿಯೋಜಿತರಾದ ಅವಧಿಗಾಗಿ  ರಾಜ್ಯ  ಚುನಾವಣಾ  ಆಯೋಗಕ್ಕೆ  ಪ್ರತಿನಿಯೋಜಿತರಾಗಿದ್ದಾರೆಂದು  ಭಾವಿಸತಕ್ಕದ್ದು  ಮತ್ತು  ಅಂತಹ ಅಧಿಕಾರಿಗಳು ಮತ್ತು ಸಿಬ್ಬಂದಿಯು ಆ ಅವಧಿಯಲ್ಲಿ ರಾಜ್ಯ ಚುನಾವಣಾ ಆಯೋಗದ ನಿಯಂತ್ರಣ,  ಮೇಲ್ವಿಚಾರಣೆ ಹಾಗೂ ಶಿಸ್ತಿಗೆ ಒಳಪಟ್ಟಿರತಕ್ಕದ್ದು ಹಾಗೂ ಈ ಅವಧಿಯಲ್ಲಿ ಅಧಿಕಾರಿಗಳು ದುರ್ನಡತೆ ಎಸಗಿದಲ್ಲಿ ಅಂಥವರ ವಿರುದ್ಧ ಕರ್ನಾಟಕ ಸಿವಿಲ್ ಸೇವೆಗಳು (ವರ್ಗಿಕರಣ, ನಿಯಂತ್ರಣ ಮತ್ತು ಮೇಲ್ಮನವಿ) ನಿಯಮಗಳು, 1957 ರನ್ವಯ ಕ್ರಮ ಕೈಗೊಳ್ಳತಕ್ಕದ್ದು.]1 <br />1.   ಪ್ರಕರಣ 308ಎ ಇಂದ 308ಡಿ 2003ರ ಅಧಿನಿಯಮ ಸಂಖ್ಯೆ: 37ರ ಮೂಲಕ ದಿನಾಂಕ: 01-10-2003ರಿಂದ ಸೇರಿಸಲಾಗಿದೆ. <br />  309.  ಅಭಿವೃದ್ಧಿ ಯೋಜನೆಯ ತಯಾರಿಕೆ. (1) ಪ್ರತಿಯೊಂದು ಗ್ರಾಮ ಪಂಚಾಯತಿಯು 1[ಗ್ರಾಮ ಸಭೆಯು ಸೂಚಿಸಿದ  ಅಭಿವೃದ್ಧಿ  ಕಾರ್ಯಕ್ರಮಗಳನ್ನು  ಗಮನದಲ್ಲಿಟ್ಟುಕೊಂಡು]1,  ಪ್ರತಿವರ್ಷವೂ  ಅಭಿವೃದ್ಧಿ ಯೋಜನೆಯೊಂದನ್ನು  ಸಿದ್ಧಪಡಿಸತಕ್ಕದ್ದು  ಮತ್ತು  ಗೊತ್ತುಪಡಿಸಬಹುದಾದಂಥ  ದಿನಾಂಕದೊಳಗೆ  ಮತ್ತು  ಅಂಥ ರೀತಿಯಲ್ಲಿ ತಾಲ್ಲೂಕು ಪಂಚಾಯತಿಗೆ 2[ಕಳುಹಿಸತಕ್ಕದ್ದು]2. <br />  1.   1997ರ ಅಧಿನಿಯಮ ಸಂಖ್ಯೆ: 29ರ ಮೂಲಕ ದಿನಾಂಕ: 20-10-1997ರಿಂದ ಸೇರಿಸಲಾಗಿದೆ.   <br />2.   1997ರ ಅಧಿನಿಯಮ ಸಂಖ್ಯೆ: 29ರ ಮೂಲಕ ದಿನಾಂಕ: 20-10-1997ರಿಂದ ಪ್ರತಿಯೋಜಿಸಲಾಗಿದೆ.   (2) ಪ್ರತಿಯೊಂದು  ತಾಲ್ಲೂಕು  ಪಂಚಾಯತಿಯು,  ಪ್ರತಿವರ್ಷವೂ  ಗ್ರಾಮ  ಪಂಚಾಯತಿಗಳ  ಅಭಿವೃದ್ಧಿ ಯೋಜನೆಗಳು  ಸೇರಿದ  ನಂತರ  ತಾಲ್ಲೂಕು  ಅಭಿವೃದ್ಧಿ  ಯೋಜನೆಯನ್ನು  ಸಿದ್ಧಪಡಿಸತಕ್ಕದ್ದು  ಮತ್ತು ಗೊತ್ತುಪಡಿಸಬಹುದಾದಂಥ ದಿನಾಂಕದೊಳಗೆ ಮತ್ತು ಅಂಥ ರೀತಿಯಲ್ಲಿ ಜಿಲ್ಲಾ ಪಂಚಾಯತಿಗೆ 1[ಕಳುಹಿಸತಕ್ಕದ್ದು]1. <br />1.   1997ರ ಅಧಿನಿಯಮ ಸಂಖ್ಯೆ: 29ರ ಮೂಲಕ ದಿನಾಂಕ: 20-10-1997ರಿಂದ ಪ್ರತಿಯೋಜಿಸಲಾಗಿದೆ. <br />  (3)  ಪ್ರತಿಯೊಂದು  ಜಿಲ್ಲಾ  ಪಂಚಾಯತಿಯು,  ಪ್ರತಿವರ್ಷವೂ  ತಾಲ್ಲೂಕು  ಪಂಚಾಯತಿಯ  ಅಭಿವೃದ್ಧಿ ಯೋಜನೆಗಳು  ಸೇರಿದ  ನಂತರ  ಜಿಲ್ಲೆಯ  ಅಭಿವೃದ್ಧಿ  ಯೋಜನೆಯನ್ನು  ಸಿದ್ಧಪಡಿಸತಕ್ಕದ್ದು  ಮತ್ತು  ಅದನ್ನು  310ನೇ  ಪ್ರಕರಣದ ಅಡಿಯಲ್ಲಿ ರಚಿತವಾದ ಜಿಲ್ಲಾ ಯೋಜನಾ ಸಮಿತಿಗೆ 1[ಕಳುಹಿಸತಕ್ಕದ್ದು]1. <br />1.   1997ರ ಅಧಿನಿಯಮ ಸಂಖ್ಯೆ: 29ರ ಮೂಲಕ ದಿನಾಂಕ: 20-10-1997ರಿಂದ ಪ್ರತಿಯೋಜಿಸಲಾಗಿದೆ. <br />  1[(4)  ಗ್ರಾಮೀಣ  ಮಟ್ಟದಿಂದ  ರಾಜ್ಯಮಟ್ಟದವರೆಗಿನ  ಅವಶ್ಯಕತೆಗಳನ್ನು  ಈಡೇರಿಸುವ  ಸಲುವಾಗಿ  ಎಲ್ಲ ಯೋಜನೆಗಳನ್ನು  ತಾಲ್ಲೂಕು  ಯೋಜನಾ  ಮತ್ತು  ಅಭಿವೃದ್ಧಿ  ಸಮಿತಿಗಳು  ಮತ್ತು  ಜಿಲ್ಲಾ  ಯೋಜನಾ  ಸಮಿತಿಗಳ ಮೂಲಕ ರೂಪಿಸತಕ್ಕದ್ದು.]1 <br />  1. 2015ರ ಅಧಿನಿಯಮ ಸಂಖ್ಯೆ 44ರ ಮೂಲಕ ದಿನಾಂಕ: 25.02.2016ರಿಂದ ಸೇರಿಸಲಾಗಿದೆ. <br />309ಬಿ. ದೂರದೃಷ್ಠಿ ಯೋಜನೆ.-(1) ಪ್ರತಿಯೊಂದು ಹೊಸದಾಗಿ  ಚುನಾಯಿತವಾದ ಗ್ರಾಮ ಪಂಚಾಯತಿಯು, ಅದರ  ರಚನೆಯ  ದಿನಾಂಕದಿಂದ    ಮೂರು  ತಿಂಗಳೊಳಗಾಗಿ,  ಜನವಸತಿ  ಸಭಾ,  ವಾರ್ಡ್  ಸಭಾ,  ಮತ್ತು  ಗ್ರಾಮ ಸಭೆಗಳ  ಸದಸ್ಯರನ್ನು  ಅದರ  ಪ್ರದೇಶದ  ಸಂಪನ್ಮೂಲಗಳನ್ನು,  ಜನಸಂಖ್ಯೆ  ಮತ್ತು  ಅಗತ್ಯಗಳನ್ನು    ತೋರಿಸುವ ಸಹಭಾಗಿ ಗ್ರಾಮೀಣ ಪರಾಮರ್ಶನವನ್ನು ಕೈಗೊಳ್ಳತಕ್ಕದ್ದು. <br />(2)  ಗ್ರಾಮ  ಪಂಚಾಯತಿಯ,  ಕಾರ್ಯಸಾಧನೆ  ಪದ್ದತಿಯನ್ನು  ಬಳಸಿಕೊಂಡು  ಕ್ರಮ  ಕೈಗೊಳ್ಳುವುದಕ್ಕಾಗಿ ಗುರಿಗಳನ್ನು   ಹೊಂದಿರುವ    ಮತ್ತು  ಅಭಿವೃದ್ಧಿ  ಪ್ರತಿಫಲದ    ಸೂಚಿಗಳಿಗೆ  ಸ್ಥಳೀಯ  ರಾಜ್ಯ  ಮತ್ತು  ಕೇಂದ್ರ ಸರ್ಕಾರಗಳು  ಸ್ಥಾಪಿಸಿದ ಅಭಿವೃದ್ಧಿ ಮೈಲಿ ಗುರುತುಗಳು ಅಭಿವೃದ್ಧಿಯ ಆಧಾರದ ಮೇಲೆ ಪಂಚಾಯತ್ ಪೂರ್ಣ ಅವಧಿಗಾಗಿ ದೂರದೃಷ್ಠಿ ಯೋಜನೆಯನ್ನು  ಮುಂದಾಲೋಚನೆ ಸಿದ್ದಪಡಿಸತಕ್ಕದ್ದು. <br />(3)  ದೂರದೃಷ್ಠಿ  ಯೋಜನೆಯ  ತನ್ನ  ಅವಧಿಯ    ಮುಂದಿನ  ಐದು  ವರ್ಷಗಳಿಗಾಗಿ  ಪ್ರತಿವರ್ಷಕ್ಕೆ  ಅಗತ್ಯ- ಆಧಾರಿತ  ವಾರ್ಷಿಕ    ಯೋಜನೆಗಳನ್ನು  ನಿರ್ಮಿಸುವ    ಆಧಾರದಲ್ಲಿ    ರೂಪಿಸತಕ್ಕದ್ದು.  ಆದ್ಯತೆ  ವಿಷಯಗಳು ಜವಾಬ್ದಾರಿ ನಕ್ಷೆಯಲ್ಲಿ ಹೇಳಲಾದ ಆದ್ಯತಾರ್ಯಾಂಕಿಂಗ್ ವಿಧಾನದ ಆಧಾರದಲ್ಲಿರತಕ್ಕದ್ದು. <br />(4)  ಮುಂದಿನ  ಹಣಕಾಸು  ವರ್ಷದ    ಅವಧಿಯಲ್ಲಿ  ನಿಧಿಗಳ  ಲಭ್ಯತೆಗೆ  ಒಳಪಟ್ಟು  ಪ್ರತಿಯೊಂದು  ಗ್ರಾಮ ಪಂಚಾಯತಿಯ  ಅದೇ  ವರ್ಷದ  ಅಕ್ಟೋಬರ್  ಒಳಗಾಗಿ  ಕ್ರೋಢೀಕರಣ  ಮತ್ತು    ಸಂಯೋಜನೆಗಾಗಿ  ತಾಲ್ಲೂಕು ಯೋಜನೆ ಮತ್ತು ಅಭಿವೃದ್ಧಿ ಸಮಿತಿಗೆ ತಮ್ಮ ವಾರ್ಷಿಕ  ಕರಡು ಯೋಜನೆಗಳನ್ನು ಸಲ್ಲಿಸತಕ್ಕದ್ದು. <br />ವಿವರಣೆ:-  309ಎ,  309ಬಿ  ಪ್ರಕರಣದ  ಉದ್ದೇಶಕ್ಕಾಗಿ  ಮತ್ತು  ಅಧಿನಿಯಮದಲ್ಲಿ  ಸದರಿ  ಪದಾವಳಿಗಳು ಬರುವಕಡೆಗಳಲ್ಲಿ:   <br />(1)    ``ಸಹಭಾಗೀ  ಗ್ರಾಮೀಣ  ಪರಾಮರ್ಶೆಯಲ್ಲಿ  ಈ  ಅಧಿನಿಯಮದ  ಅಡಿಯಲ್ಲಿ  ಪಂಚಾಯತ್ಗಳ ದೀರ್ಘಾವಧಿ  ದೂರದೃಷ್ಟಿ  ಯೋಜನೆಗೆ  ಅಥವಾ  ವಾರ್ಷಿಕ  ಯೋಜನೆಗಳಿಗೆ  ಸಂಬಂಧಪಟ್ಟಂತೆ  ಕೈಗೆತ್ತಿಕೊಳ್ಳಲಾದ ವಾಸ್ತವಾಂಶಗಳ ಕುರಿತಂತೆ ಅಧ್ಯಯನ, ವಿಶ್ಲೇಷಣೆ ಮತ್ತು ಪರಾಮರ್ಶೆ ಒಳಗೊಂಡಿರುತ್ತವೆ.   <br />(2)  ``ಕಾರ್ಯಸಾಧನೆ  ಪದ್ದತಿ  ಎಂದರೆ  ಮೂರು  ಪ್ರಾಥಮಿಕ  ಘಟಕಗಳಾದ-ಅಳತೆಗೋಲು,     ಪ್ರತಿಕ್ರಿಯೆ ಮತ್ತು ಧನಾತ್ಮಕ ಮರು ಜಾರಿ ಒಳಗೊಂಡಿರುವ, ವೈಜ್ಞಾನಿಕ ಆಧಾರಿತ, ದತ್ತಾಂಶ ಆಧಾರಿತ ನಿರ್ವಹಣಾ ಪದ್ಧತಿ  ಮತ್ತು  ಇದರಲ್ಲಿ  ಅತ್ಯಗತ್ಯ  ಧ್ಯೇಯೋದ್ದೇಶಗಳನ್ನು  ಮತ್ತು  ಆದ್ಯತೆಗಳನ್ನು  ಸಾಧಿಸುವ  ನಿಟ್ಟಿನಲ್ಲಿ ಸಂಪನ್ಮೂಲಗಳನ್ನು,  ವ್ಯವಸ್ಥೆಗಳನ್ನು  ಹಾಗೂ  ಸಿಬ್ಬಂದಿವರ್ಗದವರನ್ನು  ಸರಿಹೊಂದಾಣಿಕೆ  ಮಾಡುವ  ವಿಧಾನದ ಮೂಲಕ  ಪರಿಣಾಮಕಾರಿಯಾಗಿ  ಮತ್ತು  ದಕ್ಷತೆಯಿಂದ  ನಿರಂತರವಾಗಿ  ಗುರಿಗಳನ್ನು  ಸಾಧಿಸುತ್ತಿರುವುದನ್ನು ಸುನಿಶ್ಚಿತಪಡಿಸುವಂಥ ಕಾರ್ಯಚಟುವಟಿಕೆಗಳು ಸೇರುತ್ತವೆ.   <br />(3)    ``ಆದ್ಯತಾ ರ್ಯಾಂಕಿಂಗ್ ಇದು ಆದ್ಯತಾ ನಿಗದಿ ವಿಧಾನವನ್ನು ಬಳಸಿಕೊಂಡು ಫಲಾನುಭವಿಗಳನ್ನು, ಯೋಜನೆಗಳನ್ನು,  ಕಾರ್ಯಕ್ರಮಗಳನ್ನು  ಮತ್ತು  ಪರಿಯೋಜನೆಗಳನ್ನು  ಆಯ್ಕೆ  ಮಾಡಿಕೊಳ್ಳುವಾಗ  ಪ್ರದೇಶದ ಹಿಂದುಳಿದಿರುವಿಕೆ, ಅವಶ್ಯಕತೆಯತುರ್ತು, ಪರಿಣಾಮಕಾರಿ ಹಂತ ಮತ್ತು ವ್ಯಾಪ್ತಿಯ ಆದ್ಯತೆಗಳನ್ನು ನಿರ್ಧರಿಸುವುದಕ್ಕೆ ಸೂಚಕಗಳನ್ನು ನೀಡುತ್ತದೆ. <br />   309ಸಿ. ತಾಲ್ಲೂಕು ಪಂಚಾಯತ್ ಯೋಜನೆ.- (1) 309ಡಿ ಪ್ರಕರಣದ ಅಡಿಯಲ್ಲಿ ರಚನೆಯಾದ ತಾಲ್ಲೂಕು ಯೋಜನೆ  ಮತ್ತು  ಅಭಿವೃದ್ಧಿ  ಸಮಿತಿಯ  ಮುಂದೆ  ಮಂಡಿಸುವುದಕ್ಕಾಗಿ  ತಾಲ್ಲೂಕು  ಮಟ್ಟದಲ್ಲಿ    ಎಲ್ಲಾ  ಗ್ರಾಮ ಪಂಚಾಯತಿಗಳ  ಯೋಜನೆಗಳನ್ನು  ಡಿಜಿಟಲ್  ನಮೂನೆಯಲ್ಲಿ  ಕ್ರೋಢೀಕರಿಸುವುದಕ್ಕೆ  ತಾಲ್ಲೂಕು  ಪಂಚಾಯತಿಗಳು ಹೊಣೆಯಾಗತಕ್ಕದ್ದು. <br />(2)  ತಾಲ್ಲೂಕು  ಪಂಚಾಯತಿಯು  ಜಿಲ್ಲಾ  ಪಂಚಾಯತಿಗೆ  ಈ  ಯೋಜನೆಯ  ಡಿಜಿಟಲ್  ಪ್ರತಿಯನ್ನು  ಕೂಡಾ ಕಳುಹಿಸತಕ್ಕದ್ದು. <br /></p>

(1)  ಈ  ಅಧಿನಿಯಮದ ಅಡಿಯಲ್ಲಿ  ಜಿಲ್ಲಾ  ಪಂಚಾಯತಿ  ಅಥವಾ  ತಾಲ್ಲೂಕು  ಪಂಚಾಯಿತಿ  ಚುನಾವಣೆಯಲ್ಲಿ …

Recruitment of various post in UNION PIBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

<p style="text-align: center;">  <b>UNION PIBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION</b></p><p style="text-align: center;"><b>EXAMINATION NOTICE CPF DATED </b><b>CENTRAL ARMED POLICE FORCES </b></p><p style="text-align: center;"><b>(ASSISTANT COMMANDANTS) EXAMINATION</b></p><p style="text-align: center;"><b>IMPORTANT</b></p><p>1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILlTY FOR THE EXAMINATION: Candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. Mere issue of e-Admission Certificate to the candidate will not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission.</p><p>Verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents is taken up only after the candidate has qualified for Interview/Personality Test.</p><p>2. HOW TO APPLY: Candidates are required to apply online only by using the website https://www.upsconline.nic.in. Brief instructions for filling up the online Application Form have been given in Appendix-II. Detailed instructions are available on the above mentioned website.</p><p>2.1 Candidate should have details of one Photo ID Card viz. Aadhaar Card/Voter Card/PAN Card/ Passport/Driving License/Any other Photo ID Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of this Photo ID Card will have to be provided by the candidate while filling up the online application form. The candidates will have to upload a scanned copy of the Photo ID whose details have been provided in the online application by him/her. This Photo ID Card will be used for all future referencing and the candidate is advised to carry this Photo ID Card while appearing for Examination/Personality Test.</p><p>2.2 The Commission has introduced the facility of withdrawal of Application for those candidates who do not want to appear for the Examination. In this regard, Instructions are mentioned in Appendix-II (B) of this Examination Notice.</p><p>3. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION AND WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATIONS: The Online Applications can be filled upto 10th May, 2022 till 18.00 Hours.</p><p>(II) The online Applications can be withdrawn from 17.05.2022 to 23.05.2022 till 6.00 PM. Detailed instructions regarding withdrawal of Applications is available at Appendix-II (B).</p><p>4. The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admission Certificate three weeks before the commencement of the examination. The e-Admission Certificate will be made available in the UPSC website [https//www.upsconline.nic.in] for downloading by candidates. No Admission Certificate will be sent by post. All the applicants are required to provide valid and active E-Mail I.D. while filling up Online Application Form as the Commission may use electronic mode for contacting them.</p><p>5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS (In Objective Type Question Paper): Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Paper.</p><p>6. INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING UP OMR SHEETS:</p><p>a) For both writing and marking answers in the OMR Sheets (Answer Sheet) candidates must use black ball point pen only. Pens with any other colours are prohibited. Do not use Pencil or Ink pen. Candidates are further advised to read Special Instructions contained in Appendix-III of the Notice.</p><p>b) Candidates should note that any omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling in details in the OMR answer sheet; especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code, will render the answer sheet liable for rejection.</p><p>7. SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS: Candidates are advised to read carefully “Special Instructions to the Candidates for Conventional Type Tests” (Appendix-IV).</p><p>8. FACILITATION COUNTER FOR GUIDANCE OF CANDIDATES: In case of any guidance/information/clarification regarding their applications, candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSC’s Facilitation Counter near ‘C’ Gate of its campus in person or over Telephone No. 011- 23385271/011-23381125/011-23098543 on working days between 10.00 hrs. and 17.00 hrs.</p><p>9. Mobile Phones/other articles Banned:</p><p>(a) The use of any mobile phone (even in switched off mode), pager or any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or camera or blue tooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories either in working or switched off mode capable of being used as a communication device during the examination is strictly prohibited. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.</p><p>(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned item including mobile phones or any valuable/costly items to the venue of the examination, as arrangement for safe-keeping cannot be assured. Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.</p><p>No.11/2/2021-E.1(B) : The Union Public Service Commission will hold a Written Examination on 07th August, 2022 for recruitment of Assistant Commandants (Group A) in the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) viz. Border Security Force (BSF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Central Industrial Security Force(CISF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) and Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB). The Examination will be held in accordance with the Rules for the published by Ministry of Home Affairs in the Gazette of India dated 20th April, 2022. The date of holding the examination as mentioned above is liable to be changed at the discretion of the Commission.</p><p>The tentative Examination number of vacancies to be filled on the results of the examination is as follows:</p><p>(i) BSF 66</p><p>(ii) CRPF 29</p><p>(iii) CISF 62</p><p>(iv) ITBP 14</p><p>(iv) SSB 82                                                                                                                                                  ---------------------------------------                                                                                                                Total 253                                                                                                                                                      ---------------------------------------</p><p>The number of vacancies mentioned above is liable to alteration. Reservation will be given effect to as per policy of the Govt. 10% of the vacancies are earmarked for exservicemen.</p><p>NOTE: In case the vacancy(ies) reserved for Ex-servicemen remain unfilled due to nonavailability of eligible or qualified candidates, the same shall be filled by candidates from nonex- servicemen category.</p><p>2. CENTRES OF EXAMINATION :</p><p>The Examination will be held at the following Centres :<a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgVW2dCGFR7DUEKdmmHxACUUASpqeG2PoNIK5BdmK_QpevqS4l1gN32S3syppy4aZ9q7hWDc38YHp90VUi88EGZ_w6kxM-brZsKl_kOVEAHLpctjbVYIf_2XVPLuHEnAk20wde45jYNo-rHQiPpDvo90NNc3UWj9OAxlhSdKUhjV-TDvt4xgDpayw/s473/Notification-UPSC-CAPF-ACs-2022_002.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em; text-align: center;"><img border="0" data-original-height="194" data-original-width="473" height="267" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgVW2dCGFR7DUEKdmmHxACUUASpqeG2PoNIK5BdmK_QpevqS4l1gN32S3syppy4aZ9q7hWDc38YHp90VUi88EGZ_w6kxM-brZsKl_kOVEAHLpctjbVYIf_2XVPLuHEnAk20wde45jYNo-rHQiPpDvo90NNc3UWj9OAxlhSdKUhjV-TDvt4xgDpayw/w654-h267/Notification-UPSC-CAPF-ACs-2022_002.png" width="654" /></a>The centres and the date of holding the examination as mentioned above are liable to be changed at the discretion of the Commission. Applicants should note that there will be a ceiling on the number of candidates allotted to each of the Centres, except Chennai, Dispur, Kolkata and Nagpur. </p><p>Allotment of Centres will be on the “first-apply-first allot” basis, and once the capacity of a particular Centre is attained, the same will be frozen. Applicants, who cannot get a Centre of their Choice due to ceiling, will be required to choose a Centre from the remaining ones. Applicants are, thus, advised that they may apply early so that they may apply early so that they could get a Centre of their choice.</p><div>NB : Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision, Commission reserve the right to change the</div><div>Centres at their discretion if the situation demands.</div><div>Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time table and place or places of</div><div>examination. The candidates should note that no request for change of centre will be entertained.</div><div>Reservations will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, other Backward Classes</div><div>and Economically Weaker Sections categories in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government.</div><div><br /></div><div>A candidate will be eligible to get the benefit of community reservation only in case the particular</div><div>caste to which the candidates belong is included in the list of reserved communities issued by the</div><div>Central Government. The candidates will be eligible to get the benefit of the Economically Weaker</div><div>Section reservation only in case the candidate meets the criteria issued by the Central Government</div><div>and in possession of such eligibility certification.</div><div><br /></div><div>The OBC candidates applying for CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2022 must produce OBC (Non-Creamy Layer)</div><div>certificate based on the income for the Financial Year (FY) 2021-2022, 2020-2021 and 2019-20.</div><div><br /></div><div><div>If a candidate indicates in his/her application form for Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant</div><div>Commandants) Examination that he/she belongs to General category but subsequently writes to the</div><div>Commission to change his/her category to a reserved one, such request shall not be entertained by</div><div>the Commission. Further, once a candidate has chosen a reserved category, no request shall be</div><div>entertained for change to other reserved category viz. SC to ST, ST to SC, OBC to SC/ST or SC/ST to</div><div>OBC, SC to EWS, EWS to SC, ST to EWS, EWS to ST, OBC to EWS, EWS to OBC. No reserved</div><div>category candidates other than those recommended on General Merit shall be allowed to change</div><div>his/her category from Reserved to Unreserved or claim the vacancies for UR category after the</div><div>declaration of final result by UPSC.</div><div><br /></div><div>While the above principle will be followed in general, there may be a few cases where there was a gap</div><div>not more than 3 months between the issuance of a Government Notification enlisting a particular</div><div>community in the list of any of the reserved communities and the date of submission of the application by</div><div><br /></div><div>the candidate. In such cases the request of change of community from general to reserved may be</div><div>considered by the Commission on merit.</div><div>Candidates seeking reservation/relaxation benefits available for SC/ST/EWS/OBC must ensure that</div><div>they are entitled to such reservation/relaxation as per eligibility prescribed in the Rules/Notice. They</div><div>should also be in possession of all the requisite certificates in the prescribed format in support of their</div><div>claim as stipulated in the Rules/Notice for such benefits by the Closing date of the application. A</div><div>candidate of CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2022 will be eligible to get the benefit of the Economically Weaker Section</div><div>reservation only in case the candidate meets the criteria issued by the Central Government and is in</div><div>possession of requisite Income & Asset Certificate based on the income for Financial Year (FY) 2021-2022.</div><div><br /></div><div>As per the decision taken by the Government for increasing the access of unemployed to job</div><div>opportunities, the Commission will publically disclose the scores of the candidates (obtained in the Written</div><div>Examination and Interview/Personality Test) through the public portals. The disclosure will be made in</div><div>respect of only those candidates who will appear in the Interview/Personality Test for the Central Armed</div><div>Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination and are not finally recommended for appointment.</div><div><br /></div><div>The information shared through this disclosure scheme about the non-recommended candidates may be</div><div>used by other public and private recruitment agencies to appoint suitable candidates from the information</div><div>made available in the public portal.</div><div>Candidates will be required to give their options at the time of Interview/Personality Test, while</div><div>acknowledging the e-summon letter mailed to them for interview. A candidate may opt out of the scheme</div><div><br /></div><div>also and in that case his/her details will not be published by the Commission.</div><div>Besides sharing of the information of the non-recommended candidates for the examinations</div><div>conducted by the Commission, the Commission will not assume any responsibility of liability for the</div><div>method and manner in which information related to candidates who appear at the Commission’s</div><div>Examinations/Selections is utilized by other private of public organizations.</div><div><br /></div><div>3. ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS :</div><div>(I) Nationality : No person who is not a citizen of India shall, except with the consent of the Central</div><div>Government signified in writing be appointed or employed under these Rules.</div><div>Provided that nothing contained in these rules shall debar the appointment, enrolment or employment of a subject of Nepal or Bhutan under these Rules.</div><div><br /></div><div>(II) Sex : Both Male and Female candidates are eligible for appointment to the post of Assistant</div><div>Commandants.</div><div><br /></div><div>(III) Age Limits :</div><div>(a) A candidate must have attained the age of 20 years and must not have attained the age of 25 years</div><div>on 1st August, 2022, i.e. he/she must have been born not earlier than 2nd August, 1997 and not later</div><div>than 1st August, 2002.</div><div><br /></div><div>(b) The upper age limit prescribed above will be relaxable.</div><div>(i) upto a maximum of five years if a candidate belongs to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled</div><div>Tribe.</div><div><br /></div><div>(ii) upto a maximum of three years in the case of candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes</div><div>who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such candidates.</div><div><br /></div><div>(iii) upto a maximum of five years for Civilian Central Government Servants in accordance with the</div><div>existing instructions of the Central Government. Ex-Servicemen will also be eligible for this</div><div>relaxation. However the total relaxation claimed on account of Government Service will</div><div>be limited to five years.</div><div><br /></div><div>Note I : Candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes and the Other</div><div>Backward Classes who are also covered under any other clause of Para 3(III)(b) above, viz.</div><div>those coming under the category of Civilian Central Government Servants/Ex-Servicemen,</div><div>will be eligible for grant of cumulative age-relaxation under both the categories.</div><div>Note-II: The term ex-servicemen will apply to the persons who are defined as ex-servicemen in the Exservicemen</div><div><br /></div><div>(Re-employment in Civil Service and Posts) Rules, 1979, as amended from time to</div><div>time and the decision on the issue of the eligibility of ex-servicemen shall be governed by the</div><div>decision taken by the DoP&T on the communication of the UPSC dated 22.12.2020 with</div><div>reference to the judgement of the Hon’ble High Court of Delhi in Writ Petition (C)</div><div>No.520/2020 dated 1.12.2020.</div><div><br /></div><div>Note III : The term “Civilian Central Government Servants” in Para 3(b)(iii) above will apply to persons who are defined as “Government Servants” in the Central Civil Services (Classification,</div><div>Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965 as amended from time to time.</div><div><br /></div><div>Note IV: The age concession under Para 3(II)(b)(iii) will be admissible to Ex-servicemen i.e. a person</div><div>who has served in any rank whether as combatant or non-combatant in the Regular Army,</div><div>Navy and Air Force of the Indian Union and who either has been retired or relieved or</div><div>discharged from such service whether at his own request or being relieved by the employer</div><div>after earning his or her pension. The term “Civilian Central Government Servants” will apply</div><div>to persons who are defined as “Government Servants” in the Central Civil Services</div><div>(Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965 as amended from time to time.</div><div><br /></div><div>SAVE AS PROVIDED ABOVE THE AGE LIMITS PRESCRIBED CAN IN NO CASE BE RELAXED.</div><div><br /></div><div>Note V : The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or</div><div>Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University</div><div>as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained</div><div>by a University, which must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the</div><div>Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificate. No other document relating to</div><div>age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records</div><div>and the like will be accepted. The expression Matriculation/Secondary Examination</div><div>Certificate in this part of the instructions includes the alternative certificates mentioned</div><div>above.</div><div><br /></div><div>NOTE VI : Candidates should also note that once Date of Birth has been submitted by them in the</div><div>application form and entered in records of the Commission for the purpose of admission</div><div>to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently (or at any other Examination of</div><div>the Commission) on any grounds whatsoever.</div><div><br /></div><div>Provided that in case of an inadvertent/unintentional/typographical error committed by a</div><div>candidate in indicating the date of birth in the Online Application Form, the candidate may</div><div>make a request to the Commission for subsequent rectification along with supporting</div><div>documents, as specified in the Rule 5 of the Examination and the request may be considered</div><div>by the Commission, if the same is made latest by the date of the Central Armed Police Forces</div><div>(Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2022 which is on 07.08.2022.</div><div>All communication in this regard should contain the following particulars :-</div><div><br /></div><div>1. NAME AND YEAR OF THE EXAMINATION</div><div>2. REGISTRATION I.D. (RID)</div><div>3. ROLL NUMBER (IF RECEIVED)</div><div>4. NAME OF CANDIDATE (IN FULL AND IN BLOCK LETTERS)</div><div>5. COMPLETE POSTAL ADDRESS AS GIVEN IN THE APPLICATION.</div><div>6. VALID AND ACTIVE E-MAIL I.D.</div><div><br /></div><div>(IV) Minimum Educational Qualifications: A candidate must hold a Bachelor’s degree of a University</div><div>incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions</div><div>established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under Section-3 of the</div><div>University Grants Commission Act, 1956 or possess an equivalent qualification.</div><div><br /></div><div>NOTE 1 : Candidates who have appeared at an examination the passing of which would render them</div><div>educationally qualified for the Commission’s examination but have not been informed of the results as also</div><div><br /></div><div>the candidates who intend to appear at such a qualifying examination in the year 2022 will also be eligible</div><div><br /></div><div>for admission to the examination. Such candidates will be admitted to the examination if otherwise eligible</div><div><br /></div><div>but the admission would be deemed to be provisional and subject to cancellation if they do not produce</div><div>proof of having passed the requisite examination along with the Detailed Application Form which will be</div><div><br /></div><div>required to be submitted online by the candidates who after qualifying on the result of the written</div><div>part of the examination are also declared qualified in the Physical Standards/Physical Efficiency</div><div>Tests and Medical Standards Tests. Such proof of passing the requisite examination should be dated</div><div>earlier than the due date (closing date) of Detailed Application Form of the Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2022.</div><div><br /></div><div>NOTE II : In exceptional cases, the Union Public Service Commission may treat a candidate who does not</div><div><br /></div><div>have any of the foregoing qualifications as a qualified candidate, provided that he/she has passed an</div><div>examination conducted by the other Institutions, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission justifies his/her admission to the examination.</div><div><br /></div><div>NOTE III : Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by</div><div>Government as equivalent to professional and technical degree would also be eligible for admission to the examination.</div><div><br /></div><div>V. Restriction on re-appearance of candidates finally selected/ recommended earlier:</div><div>A candidate who has been finally selected on the basis of an earlier examination to the post of Assistant</div><div>Commandants in any of the forces participating in the Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant</div><div>Commandants) Examination will not be eligible to appear at a subsequent examination for recruitment of</div><div><br /></div><div>Assistant Commandants in the participating CAPFs.</div><div>VI. Physical Standards : Candidates must meet the prescribed Physical and Medical Standards for</div><div>admission to Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants), Examination, 2022 specified in</div><div>Appendix-V of the Notice.</div><div><br /></div><div>VII. Possession of NCC ‘B’ or ‘C’ Certificates :</div><div>Possession of NCC ‘B’ or ‘C’ Certificate will be a desirable qualification. These qualifications will be</div><div>given consideration at the time of Interview/Personality Test only.</div><div><br /></div><div>4. FEE :</div><div>Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST Candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required</div><div>to pay fee of Rs.200/- (Rupees Two Hundred only) either by remitting the money in any Branch of</div><div>State Bank of India or by using Visa/Master/RuPay Credit/Debit Card / UPI Payment or by using</div><div>Internet Banking of any Bank. Applicants who opt for "Pay by Cash" mode should print the system</div><div>generated Pay-in-slip during part II registration and deposit the fee at the counter of SBI Branch on</div><div>the next working day only. "Pay by Cash” mode will be deactivated at 23.59 hours of 09.05.2022 i.e.</div><div>one day before the closing date; however applicants who have generated their Pay-in- Slip before it is</div><div>deactivated may pay at the counter of SBI Branch during banking hours on the closing date. Such</div><div>applicants who are unable to pay by cash on the closing date i.e during banking hours at SBI Branch,</div><div>for reasons whatsoever, even if holding valid pay-in-slip will have no other offline option but to opt for</div><div>available online Debit/Credit Card/UPI Payment or Internet Banking payment mode on the closing</div><div>date i.e. till 18:00 Hours of 10.05.2022.</div><div><br /></div><div>Note: 1. Candidates should note that payment of examination fee can be made only through the</div><div>modes prescribed above. Payment of fee through any other mode is neither valid nor acceptable.</div><div>Applications submitted without the prescribed fee/mode (unless remission of fee is claimed) shall be</div><div>summarily rejected.</div><div><br /></div><div>Note: 2. Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can the fee be held in</div><div>reserve for any other examination or selection.</div><div><br /></div><div>Note: 3. For the applicants in whose case payments details have not been received from the bank,</div><div>they will be treated as fictitious payment cases and their applications will be rejected in the first</div><div>instance. A list of all such applicants shall be made available on the Commission’s website within two</div><div>weeks after the last day of submission of Online Application. The applicants shall be required to</div><div>submit the proof of their fee payment within 10 days from the date of such communication either by</div><div>hand or by speed post to the Commission. On receipt of documentary proof, genuine fee payment</div><div>cases will be considered and their applications will be revived, if they are otherwise eligible.</div><div><br /></div><div>ALL FEMALE CANDIDATES AND CANDIDATES BELONGING TO SCHEDULED CASTES/</div><div>SCHEDULED TRIBES ARE NOT REQUIRED TO PAY ANY FEE. NO FEE EXEMPTION IS,</div><div>HOWEVER, AVAILABLE TO OBC/EWS CANDIDATES AND THEY ARE REQUIRED TO PAY THE</div><div>FULL PRESCRIBED FEE.</div><div><br /></div><div>5. HOW TO APPLY :</div><div>(a) Candidates are required to apply Online using the link https://www.upsconline.nic.in Detailed</div><div>instructions for filling up Online Applications are available on the above mentioned website.</div><div><br /></div><div>(b) The applicants are advised to submit only single application. However, if due to any unavoidable</div><div>situation, he/she submits another/multiple applications, then he/she must ensure that application</div><div>with the higher RID is complete in all respects like applicants details, examination centre,</div><div>photograph, signature, fee etc. The applicants who are submitting multiple applications should note</div><div>that only the application with higher RID (Registration ID) shall be entertained by the Commission</div><div>and fee paid against one RID shall not be adjusted against any other RID.</div><div><br /></div><div>(c) All candidates, whether already in Government Service, Government owned industrial</div><div>undertakings or other similar organisations or in private employment should submit their</div><div>applications direct to the Commission.</div><div><br /></div><div>Persons already in Government service, whether in permanent or temporary capacity or as workcharged</div><div>employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public</div><div>Enterprises are however, required to inform in writing their Head of Office/Department that they have</div><div>applied for the Examination.</div><div><br /></div><div>Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the</div><div>Commission withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination,</div><div>their application will be liable to be rejected/ candidature will be liable to be cancelled.</div><div><br /></div><div>NOTE 1 : While filling in his/her Online Application Form, the candidate should carefully</div><div>decide about his/her choice for the Centre for the Examination.</div><div><br /></div><div>If any candidate appears at a centre other than the one indicated by the Commission in his/her</div><div>e-Admission Certificate, the papers of such a candidate will not be evaluated and his/her</div><div>candidature will be liable to cancellation.</div><div><br /></div><div>NOTE 2 : Incomplete or defective applications shall be summarily rejected. No representation or</div><div>correspondence regarding such rejection shall be entertained under any circumstances.</div><div><br /></div><div>NOTE 3 : Candidates are not required to submit Hard Copy of their applications to the Commission at</div><div>this stage.</div><div><br /></div><div>The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all the eligibility</div><div>conditions for admission to the examination. Their admission at all the stages of examination</div><div>for which they are admitted by the Commission viz. Written Examination, Physical and Medical</div><div>Standards Tests and Physical Efficiency Test (PET) and Interview/Personality Test will be</div><div>purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on</div><div>verification at any time before or after the Written Examination, Physical and Medical</div><div>Standards Tests, Physical Efficiency Test (PET) and Interview/ Personality Test, it is found that</div><div>they do not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the examination will be</div><div>cancelled by the Commission.</div><div><br /></div><div>If any of their claims is found to be incorrect, they will render themselves liable to disciplinary action by the Commission in terms of Rule 14 of the Rules for the Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2022 reproduced below :</div><div><br /></div><div>(1) A Candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of :—</div><div>(a) Obtaining support for candidature by the following means, namely:-</div><div>(i) offering illegal gratification to; or</div><div>(ii) applying pressure on; or</div><div>(iii) blackmailing, or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct of the examination; or</div><div><br /></div><div>(b) impersonation; or</div><div><br /></div><div>(c) procuring impersonation by any person; or</div><div><br /></div><div>(d) submitting fabricated/incorrect documents or documents which have been tampered with; or</div><div><br /></div><div>(e) uploading irrelevant or incorrect photo/signature in the application form in place of actual photo/signature; or</div><div><br /></div><div>(f) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information; or</div><div><br /></div><div>(g) resorting to the following means in connection with the candidature for the examination, namely :-</div><div>(i) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means; or</div><div>(ii) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating to the examination; or</div><div>(iii) influencing the examiners; or</div><div><br /></div><div>(h) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination; or</div><div>(i) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant matter in the scripts; or</div><div><br /></div><div>(j) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts, provoking fellow examinees to boycott</div><div><br /></div><div>examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like; or</div><div>(k) harassing, threatening or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the examination; or</div><div><br /></div><div>(l) being in possession of or using any mobile phone, (even in switched-off mode), pager or any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or camera or bluetooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories (either in working or switched-off mode) capable of being used as a communication</div><div><br /></div><div>device during the examination; or</div><div>(m) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their admission certificates permitting them to take the examination; or</div><div><br /></div><div>(n) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the commission of all or any of the acts specified in the foregoing clauses;</div><div>in addition to being liable to criminal prosecution, shall be disqualified by the Commission from the Examination held under these Rules; and/or shall be liable to be debarred either permanently or for a specified period :-</div><div><br /></div><div>(i) by the Commission, from any examination or selection held by them;</div><div>(ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them;</div><div>and shall be liable to face disciplinary action under the appropriate rules if already in service under Government;</div><div><br /></div><div>Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after :-</div><div>(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation in writing as the candidate may wish to make in that behalf; and</div><div><br /></div><div>(ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period allowed for this purpose, into consideration.</div><div><br /></div><div>(2) Any person who is found by the Commission to be guilty of colluding with a candidate(s) in committing or abetting the commission of any of the misdeeds listed at the clauses (a) to (m) above will be liable to action in terms of the clause (n) above.</div><div><br /></div><div>6. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS :</div><div>The Online Applications can be filled upto 10th May, 2022 till 18.00 Hours, after which the link will be</div><div>disabled. Detailed instructions regarding filling of online application is available at Appendix-II(A).</div><div>(ii) The online Applications can be withdrawn from 17.05.2022 to 23.05.2022 till 6.00 PM after which the link will be disabled. Detailed instructions regarding withdrawal of Applications is available at Appendix-</div><div><br /></div><div>II(B).</div><div>7. CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION :</div><div>The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the candidates about their candidature</div><div>except in the following cases:</div><div><br /></div><div>(i) The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-admission Certificate three weeks before the</div><div>commencement of the examination. The e-Admission Certificate will be made available in the UPSC</div><div>website [https://www.upsc.gov.in] for downloading by candidates. No paper Admission Certificate</div><div>will be sent by post. For downloading the e-Admission Certificate/e-Admit Card the candidate must</div><div>have his/her vital parameters like RID & Date of Birth or Roll No. (if received) & date of birth or name,</div><div>father's name & Date of Birth available with him/her. If a candidate does not receive his/her e-</div><div>Admission Certificate or any other communication regarding his/her candidature for the</div><div>examination three weeks before the commencement of the examination, he/she should at once</div><div>contact the Commission. Information in this regard can also be obtained from the Facilitation</div><div>Counter located in the Commission’s office either in person or over phone Nos. 011-23381125/011-</div><div>23385271/011-23098543. In case no communication is received in the Commission’s office</div><div>from the candidate regarding non-receipt of his/her e-admission certificate at least 3 weeks</div><div>before the examination, he/she himself/herself will be solely responsible for non-receipt of</div><div>his/her e-Admission Certificate.</div><div><br /></div><div>No candidate will ordinarily be allowed to take the examination unless he/she holds an eadmission</div><div>certificate for the examination. On the receipt of e-Admission Certificate, candidates</div><div>should check it carefully and bring discrepancies/errors, if any, to the notice of UPSC</div><div>immediately.</div><div><br /></div><div>The candidates should note that their admission to the examination would be purely provisional</div><div>based on the information given by them in the application form. This will be subject to verification of</div><div>all the eligibility conditions by the UPSC.</div><div><br /></div><div>The mere fact that an e-admission certificate to the Examination has been issued to a</div><div>candidate will not imply that the Commission has finally cleared his/her candidature or that</div><div>the Commission has accepted entries made by the candidate in his/her application for the</div><div>Examination as true and correct. Candidates may note that the Commission will take up the</div><div>verification of eligibility conditions of a candidate, with reference to original documents, only</div><div>after the candidate has qualified the Central Armed Police Forces (Written) Examination. Unless</div><div>the Commission formally confirms candidature, it continues to be provisional.</div><div><br /></div><div>The decision of the Commission as to the eligibility or otherwise of a candidate for admission to the</div><div>Examination shall be final. Candidates should note that the name in the e-Admission Certificate in</div><div>some cases may be abbreviated due to technical reasons.</div><div><br /></div><div>(ii) The candidates must ensure that their E-Mail IDs given in their Online Applications are valid and</div><div>active as the Commission may use electronic mode of communication while contacting them at</div><div>different stages of examination processes.</div><div><br /></div><div>(iii) A candidate must see that communications sent to him/her at the address stated in his/her</div><div>application are redirected, if necessary. Change in address should be communicated to the Commission at the earliest opportunity. Although the Commission make every effort to take account of such changes, they cannot accept any responsibility in the matter.</div><div><br /></div><div>(iv) Candidates may note that they will not be allowed to take the examination on the strength of an e-</div><div>Admission Certificate issued in respect of another candidate.</div><div><br /></div><div>IMPORTANT : ALL COMMUNICATIONS TO THE COMMISSION SHOULD INVARIABLY CONTAIN THE</div><div>FOLLOWING PARTICULARS.</div><div><br /></div><div>1. NAME AND YEAR OF THE EXAMINATION</div><div><br /></div><div>2. REGISTRATION I.D. (RID)</div><div><br /></div><div>3. ROLL NUMBER (IF RECEIVED)</div><div><br /></div><div>4. NAME OF CANDIDATE (IN FULL AND IN BLOCK LETTERS)</div><div><br /></div><div>5. COMPLETE POSTAL ADDRESS AS GIVEN IN THE APPLICATION.</div><div><br /></div><div>6. VALID AND ACTIVE E-MAIL ID.</div><div><br /></div><div>N.B.I : Communications not containing the above particulars may not be attended to. Candidates are</div><div>strongly advised to keep a print out or soft copy of their online application for future references.</div><div><br /></div><div>8. WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATIONS :</div><div>Applications can be withdrawn as per instructions available at Appendix II (B).</div><div><br /></div><div>9. SERVICE ALLOCATION:</div><div>Service Allocation will be made on the basis of position in the Merit List and the Service Preferences, which will have to be indicated by the candidates at the time of filling up the Detailed Application Form before the Physical and Medical Standards Tests and the Physical Efficiency Tests. Both Male and Female candidates are eligible for appointment to the post of Assistant Commandants.</div><div><br /></div><div>Alongwith the on-line Detailed Application Form (DAF) scanned documents in support of date of birth,</div><div>category (viz., SC/ST/OBC {OBC Annexure (for OBC category only)}, EWS {EWS Annexure (for EWS</div><div><br /></div><div>category only)} and other requisite documents are required to be mandatorily submitted. Any delay in</div><div>submission of the DAF or documents in support beyond the prescribed date will not be allowed and will</div><div>lead to cancellation of the candidature for the CAPF (ACs) Exam, 2022.</div><div>The DAF and/or supporting documents sent through any mode other than the online mode, as may be</div><div>made available by the UPSC on its website, will not be accepted.</div><div><br /></div><div>10. OTHER DETAILS :</div><div>For other details regarding the Examination, the candidates may refer to the Appendices as specified</div><div>below :</div><div>(a) Selection Procedure/Scheme and syllabus of Examination Appendix-I</div><div>(b) Instructions to candidates for filling up the Online Application Form Appendix-II</div><div>(c) Special Instructions for Objective Type Tests Appendix-III</div><div>(d) Special Instructions for Conventional Type Tests Appendix-IV</div><div>(e) Physical and Medical Standards Appendix-V</div><div>( OM PRAKASH )</div><div>Under Secretary</div><div>Union Public Service Commission APPENDIX - I</div><div><br /></div><div>SELECTION PROCEDURE/SCHEME AND SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION</div><div>(A) Selection Procedure/Scheme: -</div><div>The Selection Procedure/Scheme of the Examination will be as follows:</div><div>(i) Written Examination: The written examination to be conducted by Union Public Service</div><div>Commission will be held on 07th August, 2022 and will comprise two papers. Paper I will be held</div><div>from 10 a.m. to 12.00 Noon and Paper II will be held from 2.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.</div><div>Paper I : General Ability and Intelligence - 250 Marks</div><div>The questions in this paper will be of Objective (Multiple Answers) Type in which the questions will be</div><div>set in English as well as Hindi.</div><div><br /></div><div>Paper II : General Studies, Essay and Comprehension - 200 Marks</div><div>In this paper candidates will be allowed the option of writing the Essay Component in English or</div><div>Hindi, but the medium of Precis Writing, Comprehension Components and other communications/</div><div>language skills will</div><div>be English only.</div><div><br /></div><div>NOTE-I : Candidates should ensure that in Paper II they write the answers only in the medium</div><div>allowed by the Commission for the different Components as mentioned above. No credit will be given</div><div>for answers written in a medium other than the one allowed in the Paper. Candidates will be required</div><div>to indicate the medium of Essay Component in the Attendance Lists and on the Answer Book. No</div><div>credit will be given for the Essay Component if the candidate indicates a medium on the Attendance</div><div>List and on the Answer Book other than the one in which he/she has written the Essay.</div><div><br /></div><div>NOTE-II: There will be minimum qualifying marks separately in each Paper as may be fixed by the</div><div>Commission in their discretion. Paper-I will be evaluated first and evaluation of Paper-II will be done</div><div>only of those candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks in Paper-I.</div><div><br /></div><div>(ii) Physical Standards/Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standards Tests :</div><div>Candidates who are declared qualified in the written examination will be summoned for Physical</div><div>Standards/Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standards Tests. Those candidates who meet the</div><div>prescribed Physical Standards as specified in Appendix-VI, will be put through the Physical Efficiency</div><div>Tests as indicated below :</div><div>Physical Efficiency Tests (PET)</div><div>Males Females</div><div><br /></div><div>(a) 100 Meters race In 16 seconds In 18 seconds</div><div>(b) 800 Meters race In 3 minutes 45 seconds In 4 minutes 45 seconds</div><div>(c) Long Jup 3.5 Meters 3.0 meters</div><div>(3 chances) (3 chances)</div><div>(d) Shot Put (7.26 Kgs.) 4.5 Meters —</div><div><br /></div><div>A woman candidate, who as a result of a test is found to be pregnant of 12 weeks standing or</div><div>over, shall be declared temporarily unfit and her appointment is held in abeyance until the</div><div>confinement is over. The vacancy against which a woman candidate was selected should be kept</div><div>reserved for her. She should be re-examined for Physical Efficiency Test six weeks after the date of</div><div>confinement, subject to the production of the medical certificate of fitness from a registered medical</div><div>practitioner. If she is found fit, she may be appointed to the post kept reserved for and allowed the</div><div>benefit of seniority in accordance with the instructions of the Government, as amended from time to</div><div>time.</div><div><br /></div><div>Medical Standards Tests, to check the standards specified in Appendix-VI, will be conducted only in</div><div>respect of candidates who are declared qualified in the Physical Efficiency Test.</div><div>The Physical Standards/Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standards Tests will be conducted</div><div>under the supervision of a Nodal Authority to be appointed by the Ministry of Home Affairs. These</div><div>tests will be conducted at various centres to be notified after the results of the written examination.</div><div>Appeals will be entertained only against the Medical Standards Tests and will have to be made to the</div><div>Appellate Authority designated by the Ministry of Home Affairs within 24 hours after the</div><div>communication of the result of the Detailed Medical Examination.</div><div><br /></div><div>(iii) Interview/Personality Test : Candidates who are declared qualified in the Medical Standards</div><div>Tests, will be called for Interview/Personality Test to be conducted by Union Public Service</div><div>Commission. Candidates who are declared medically unfit but allowed to appear before the “Review</div><div>Medical Board” on their appeal by the Appellate Authority will be called for Interview/Personality</div><div>Tests provisionally. The Interview/Personality Test will carry 150 Marks.</div><div>Candidates who are short-listed for Interview/Personality Test, including those shortlisted for</div><div>Interview/Personality Test provisionally will be issued a Detailed Application Form (DAF) in which</div><div>among other things, they will be required to indicate their preference of Forces.</div><div><br /></div><div>(iv) Final Selection / Merit : The merit list will be drawn on the basis of marks obtained by the</div><div>candidates in the Written Examination and Interview/Personality Test.</div><div><br /></div><div>(B) Syllabi of the Written Papers:-</div><div>Paper I : General Ability and Intelligence</div><div>The objective type questions with multiple choices in this paper will broadly cover the following areas:</div><div>1. General Mental Ability</div><div>The questions will be designed to test the logical reasoning, quantitative aptitude including numerical</div><div>ability, and data interpretation.</div><div><br /></div><div>2. General Science</div><div>The questions will be set to test general awareness, scientific temper, comprehension and appreciation</div><div>of scientific phenomena of everyday observation including new areas of importance like Information</div><div>Technology, Biotechnology, Environmental Science.</div><div><br /></div><div>3. Current Events of National and International Importance:</div><div>The questions will test the candidates’ awareness of current events of national and international</div><div>importance in the broad areas of culture, music, arts, literature, sports, governance, societal and</div><div>developmental issues, industry, business, globalisation, and interplay among nations.</div><div><br /></div><div>4. Indian Polity and Economy:</div><div>The questions shall aim to test candidates’ knowledge of the Country’s political system and the</div><div>Constitution of India, social systems and public administration, economic development in India,</div><div>regional and international security issues and human rights including its indicators.</div><div><br /></div><div>5. History of India :</div><div>The questions will broadly cover the subject in its social, economic and political aspects. This shall</div><div>also include the areas of growth of nationalism and freedom movement.</div><div><br /></div><div>6. Indian and World Geography:</div><div>The questions shall cover the physical, social and economic aspects of geography pertaining to India</div><div>and the World.</div><div><br /></div><div>Paper II : General Studies, Essay and Comprehension</div><div>Part-A – Essay questions which are to be answered in long narrative form either in Hindi or English</div><div>totaling 80 Marks. The indicative topics are modern Indian history especially of the freedom struggle,</div><div>geography, polity and economy, knowledge of security and human rights issues, and analytical ability.</div><div>Part-B – Comprehension, précis writing, other communications/language skills – to be attempted in</div><div>English only (Marks 120) – The topics are Comprehension passages, précis writing, developing counter</div><div>arguments, simple grammar and other aspects of language testing.</div><div><br /></div><div>-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------</div><div>APPENDIX-II(A)</div><div><br /></div><div>INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES FOR FILLING ONLINE APPLICATIONS</div><div>Candidates are required to apply Online using the website www.upsconline.nic.in.</div><div>Salient features of the system of Online Application Form are given hereunder:</div><div><br /></div><div>• Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are available on the above mentioned website.</div><div><br /></div><div>• Candidates will be required to complete the Online Application Form containing two stages viz. Part-I and Part-II as per the instructions available in the above mentioned site through drop down menus.</div><div><br /></div><div>• The candidates are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred only) [excepting</div><div>SC/ST/Female candidates who are exempted from payment of fee] either by depositing the money in any branch of State Bank of India by cash, or by using any Visa/Master/RuPay Credit/Debit Card / UPI</div><div>Payment or by using net banking of any Bank.</div><div><br /></div><div>Before start filling up Online Application, a candidate must have his photograph and signature duly</div><div>scanned in the .jpg format in such a manner that each file should not exceed 300 KB each and must not be less than 20 KB in size for the photograph and signature.</div><div><br /></div><div>The candidate should have details of one Photo ID viz. Aadhar Card/Voter Card/PAN Card/</div><div>Passport/Driving License/Any other photo ID Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of this photo ID will have to be provided by the candidate while filling up the online application form.</div><div><br /></div><div>This photo ID will be used for all future references and the candidate is advised to carry this ID while appearing for the examination. The Online applications (Part I and II) can be filled from 20th April, 2022 to 10th May, 2022 till 18:00</div><div>Hrs.</div><div><br /></div><div>• Applicants should avoid submitting multiple applications. However, if due to any unavoidable</div><div>circumstances, any applicant submits multiple applications then he/she must ensure that the application</div><div>with higher RID is complete in all respects.</div><div><br /></div><div>• In case of multiple applications, the application with higher RID shall be entertained by the Commission and fee paid against one RID shall not be adjusted against any other RID.</div><div><br /></div><div>• The applicants must ensure that while filling their Application Form, they are providing their valid and</div><div>active E-Mail IDs as the Commission may use electronic mode of communication while contacting them at different stages of examination process.</div><div><br /></div><div>• The applicants are advised to check their e-mails at regular intervals and ensure that the e-mail address</div><div>ending with @nic.in are directed to their inbox folder and not to the SPAM folder or any other folder.</div><div><br /></div><div>• Candidates are strongly advised to apply online well in time without waiting for the last date for</div><div>submission of Online Applications.</div><div><br /></div><div>Moreover, the Commission has introduced provision of withdrawal of application for the</div><div>candidate, who does not want to appear at the Examination, he/she may withdraw his/her</div><div>application.</div><div><br /></div><div>Appendix-II (B)</div><div>IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO WITHDRAW APPLICATION</div><div>1. Candidates are advised to go through the instructions carefully before filling up the request for</div><div>withdrawal of application.</div><div><br /></div><div>2. The Commission has provided the withdrawal facility from 17.05.2022 to 23.05.2022 (till 6.00 PM) to those candidates who do not want to appear at this Examination.</div><div><br /></div><div>3. Candidates are advised to provide the details of registered application with registration-id which was</div><div>completed and submitted finally. There is no provision for withdrawing of incomplete applications.</div><div><br /></div><div>4. Before making the request for withdrawal, candidate must ensure that they have access to the registered mobile number and email-id which were provided by them at the time of submission of application. Separate OTPs will be sent by the Commission on the registered mobile number and email-id. Request for</div><div><br /></div><div>withdrawal will be accepted only after it is confirmed by validating the OTP details sent on candidate’s</div><div>mobile and email-id. Such OTPs will be valid for 30 Minutes only.</div><div>5. Request for generating OTP for withdrawal of application will be accepted only till 5.30 PM on</div><div>23.05.2022.</div><div><br /></div><div>6. If a candidate has submitted more than one application form then the higher registration-id of</div><div>Application (latest) will be considered for withdrawal and all earlier applications will be treated as cancelled</div><div>automatically.</div><div><br /></div><div>7. After the final acceptance of the request for online withdrawal of application, the candidate must print</div><div>the authenticated receipt. Once application has been withdrawn by the candidate, it cannot be revived in</div><div>future.</div><div><br /></div><div>8. UPSC has no provision to refund any fee amount paid by candidates, so in case of successful withdrawal</div><div>of application the fees will not be refunded.</div><div><br /></div><div>9. On successful completion of withdrawal of application, an auto-generated email and SMS will be sent on</div><div>candidate’s registered email-id and mobile. In case any candidate has not submitted the request for</div><div>withdrawal of application he/she may contact UPSC on email-id: upscsoap@nic.in immediately.</div><div><br /></div><div>10. Candidates are advised not to share the OTPs received on email and SMS to anybody.</div><div>-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------</div><div>APPENDIX-III</div><div>Special Instruction to candidates for objective type tests</div><div>1. Articles permitted inside Examination Hall</div><div>Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written), a good quality black ball pen for making responses</div><div>on the Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet and sheet for rough work will be supplied by the invigilator.</div><div><br /></div><div>2. Articles not permitted inside Examination Hall</div><div>Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other than those specified above e.g. books, notes,</div><div>loose sheets, electronic or any other type of calculators, mathematical and drawing instruments, Log</div><div>Tables, stencils of maps, slide rules, Test Booklets, rough sheets pertaining to earlier session(s), etc.</div><div>Mobile phones or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the premises where</div><div>the examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail</div><div>disciplinary action including ban from future examinations. Candidates are advised in their own</div><div>interest not to bring any of the banned items including mobile phones etc. to the venue of the</div><div>examination, as arrangements for safekeeping cannot be assured.</div><div><br /></div><div>3. Penalty for wrong Answers (in Objective Type Papers)</div><div>THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BYA</div><div>CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.</div><div>(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong</div><div>answer has been given by the candidate, one third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will</div><div>be deducted as penalty.</div><div><br /></div><div>(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the</div><div>given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question.</div><div><br /></div><div>(iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for</div><div>that question.</div><div><br /></div><div>4. Unfair means strictly prohibited</div><div>No candidates shall copy from the papers of any other candidate nor permit his papers to be copied nor</div><div>give nor attempt to give not obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance of any description.</div><div>5. Conduct in Examination Hall</div><div><br /></div><div>No candidates should misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the Examination Hall or</div><div>harass the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the examination. Any such misconduct</div><div>will be severely penalised.</div><div><br /></div><div>6. Answer Sheet Particulars</div><div>(i) Write in black ball pen your Centre and subject followed by Test Booklet series (in bracket), subject code</div><div><br /></div><div>and roll number at the appropriate space provided on the Answer Sheet at the top. Also encode your</div><div>booklet series (A, B, C or D as the case may be), subject code and roll number with black ball pen in</div><div>the circles provided for the purpose in the Answer Sheet. The guidelines for writing the above particulars</div><div><br /></div><div>and encoding the above particulars are given in Annexure. In case the booklet series is not printed on the Test Booklet or Answer Sheet is unnumbered, please report immediately to the invigilator and get the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet replaced.</div><div><br /></div><div>(ii) Candidates should note that any omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in the OMR</div><div>answer sheet, especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code, will render the answer</div><div><br /></div><div>sheet liable for rejection.</div><div>(iii) Immediately after commencement of the examination please check that the Test Booklet supplied to you</div><div><br /></div><div>does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete</div><div>Test Booklet of the same series and subject.</div><div><br /></div><div>7. Do not write your name or anything other than the specific items of information asked for, on the Answer Sheet/Test Booklet/sheet for rough work.</div><div><br /></div><div>8. Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous marking in the Answer Sheet. Do not write</div><div>anything on the reverse of the Answer Sheet.</div><div><br /></div><div>9. Since the Answer Sheets will be evaluated on computerised machines, candidates should exercise due care</div><div><br /></div><div>in handling and filling up the Answer Sheets. They should use black ball pen only to darken the</div><div>circles. For writing in boxes, they should use black ball pen. Since the entries made by the</div><div>candidates by darkening the circles will be taken into account while evaluating the Answer Sheet on</div><div>computerised machines, they should make these entries very carefully and accurately. The</div><div>candidate must mark responses in the Answer Sheet with good quality black ball pen.</div><div><br /></div><div>10. Method of marking answers</div><div>In the "OBJECTIVE TYPE" of examination, you do not write the answers. For each question (hereinafter</div><div><br /></div><div>referred to as "Item") several suggested answers (hereinafter referred to as "Responses") are given. You</div><div>have to choose one response to each item. The question paper will be in the Form of TEST BOOKLET.</div><div>The booklet will contain item bearing numbers 1, 2, 3 etc. Under each item, Responses marked (a), (b),</div><div>(c), (d) will be given. Your task will be to choose the correct response. If you think there is more than</div><div>one correct response, then choose what you consider the best response.</div><div>In any case, for each item you are to select only one response. If you select more than one response,</div><div>your response will be considered wrong. In the Answer Sheet, Serial Nos. from 1 to 160 are printed.</div><div>Against each numbers, there are circles marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). After you have read each item in the</div><div><br /></div><div>Test Booklet and decided which one of the given responses is correct or the best, you have to mark</div><div>your response by completely blackening to indicate your response.</div><div>Ink pen or pencil should not be used for blackening the circle on the Answer Sheet.</div><div>For example, if the correct answer to item 1 is (b), then the circle containing the letter (b) is to be</div><div>completely blackened with black ball pen as shown below :-</div><div>Example : (a) • (c) (d)</div><div><br /></div><div>11. Entries in Scannable Attendance List</div><div>Candidates are required to fill in the relevant particulars with black ball pen only against their columns</div><div>in the Scannable Attendance List, as given below :-</div><div>i) Blacken the circle (P) under the column (Present/Absent)</div><div>ii) Blacken the relevant circle for Test Booklet Series iii) Write Test Booklet Serial No.</div><div>iv) Write the Answer Sheet serial No. and also blacken the corresponding circles below</div><div>v) Append signature in the relevant column</div><div><br /></div><div>12. Please read and abide by the instructions on the cover of Test Booklet. If any candidate indulges in</div><div>disorderly or improper conduct, he will render himself liable for disciplinary action and/or imposition of a penalty as the Commission may deem fit.</div><div><br /></div><div>13. The candidates are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the expiry of prescribed time period</div><div>of the examination.</div><div><br /></div><div>Annexure</div><div>How to fill in the Answer Sheet of objective type tests in the Examination Hall</div><div>Please follow these instructions very carefully. You may note that since the Answer Sheets are to be</div><div>evaluated on machine, any violation of these instructions may result in reduction of your score for</div><div>which you would yourself be responsible.</div><div><br /></div><div>Before you mark your responses on the Answer Sheet, you will have to fill in various particulars in it.</div><div>As soon as the candidate receives the Answer Sheet, he/she should check that it is numbered at the</div><div>bottom. If it is found unnumbered he/she should at once get it replaced by a numbered one.।</div><div>You will see from the Answer Sheet that you will have to fill in the top line, which reads thus:</div></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEj4B8kzXaWxx2nxBAFRwBl_yzjyq4BuHslE_yDvB7rP2DEKDMUH6G9P9Dht612aTg5FbOqNlwauBT6-RHcpXnoofpTelMpDLj7SygjhWuHGPQMSJfT_VqrWxcUaGTsK3jHdNcVCMHsxxudXaytz6z0LcIp7vlUrYobrZAeVscpWdTxyKoDPatSIkw/s411/Notification-UPSC-CAPF-ACs-2022_011.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="38" data-original-width="411" height="46" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEj4B8kzXaWxx2nxBAFRwBl_yzjyq4BuHslE_yDvB7rP2DEKDMUH6G9P9Dht612aTg5FbOqNlwauBT6-RHcpXnoofpTelMpDLj7SygjhWuHGPQMSJfT_VqrWxcUaGTsK3jHdNcVCMHsxxudXaytz6z0LcIp7vlUrYobrZAeVscpWdTxyKoDPatSIkw/w489-h46/Notification-UPSC-CAPF-ACs-2022_011.png" width="489" /></a></div><div>If you are, say, appearing for the examination in Delhi Centre for the General Studies Paper and your Roll No. is 081276 and your Test Booklet series is ‘A’, you should fill in thus, using ball pen.</div><div>* This is just illustrative and may not be relevant to the Examination concerned.</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhYbooxV2Id2z3K8GuxzrNFo10pP4ROCEE9auuPAjWZ2xgdkHpaUOPQln0cFLtsimbHTRkg6cqD8fSxFwjzqnmjJUCcD4sw7-CStW5a89eJU4L9O-M5wQAuLJOZHhBielSjxygUFZpNv7yPTbiS9mNLMx1QQI3UTUlpvh9cGVzfme7oCl9qikJxYA/s418/Notification-UPSC-CAPF-ACs-2022_012.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="50" data-original-width="418" height="57" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhYbooxV2Id2z3K8GuxzrNFo10pP4ROCEE9auuPAjWZ2xgdkHpaUOPQln0cFLtsimbHTRkg6cqD8fSxFwjzqnmjJUCcD4sw7-CStW5a89eJU4L9O-M5wQAuLJOZHhBielSjxygUFZpNv7yPTbiS9mNLMx1QQI3UTUlpvh9cGVzfme7oCl9qikJxYA/w480-h57/Notification-UPSC-CAPF-ACs-2022_012.png" width="480" /></a></div><div>You should write with black ball pen the name of the centre and subject in English or Hindi. The test</div><div>Booklet Series is indicated by Alphabets A, B, C or D at the top right hand corner of the Booklet.</div><div>Write your Roll Numbers exactly as it is in your e-Admit Card in the boxes provided for this purpose. Do</div><div><br /></div><div>not omit black pen. The name of the Centre need not be encoded.</div><div>Writing and any zero(s) which may be there.</div><div>The next step is to find out the appropriate subject code from the Time Table. Now encode the Test Booklet</div><div><br /></div><div>Series, Subject Code and the Roll Number in the circles provided for this purpose. Do the encoding with</div><div>encoding of Test Booklet Series is to be done after receiving the Test Booklet and confirming the Booklet</div><div>Series from the same.</div><div>For General Ability subject paper of ‘A’ Test Booklet Series you have to encode the subject code, which is</div><div>99. Do it thus.</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi3UhfRwZh8vld7PNkASgKx2ZvZVS3GFBxnvkeaYHkDD8CscjmNRA_9-xfq--ndsiTRg-vrh-8z8dF3wklouSVmyYEJC3eVc3jl362vupSG95QIUncrfO312C1TihBlcG1F4KChU87Yu3cp0cyylhLEiMPaZIXoTo9IPrapTDVCR_481IAbNqVPmg/s500/Notification-UPSC-CAPF-ACs-2022_012.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="500" data-original-width="485" height="674" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi3UhfRwZh8vld7PNkASgKx2ZvZVS3GFBxnvkeaYHkDD8CscjmNRA_9-xfq--ndsiTRg-vrh-8z8dF3wklouSVmyYEJC3eVc3jl362vupSG95QIUncrfO312C1TihBlcG1F4KChU87Yu3cp0cyylhLEiMPaZIXoTo9IPrapTDVCR_481IAbNqVPmg/w653-h674/Notification-UPSC-CAPF-ACs-2022_012.png" width="653" /></a></div><div>APPENDIX IV</div><div>Special instructions to Candidates for Conventional Type papers</div><div>1. Answers to be written in own hand</div><div><br /></div><div>Write the answers in your own hand in ink. Pencil may be used for rough work.</div><div>2. Check Answer Book</div><div><br /></div><div>The candidate must write his/her roll number (and not his/her name) only in the space provided for</div><div>the purpose on every answer book used by him/her. Before writing in the answer book, please see</div><div>that it is complete. In case there are any missing pages, it should be got replaced.</div><div>Do not tear out any pages from the Answer Book. If you use more than one Answer Book, indicate on</div><div>the cover of first Answer Book the total number of Answer Books used. Do not leave any blank,</div><div>unused spaces between answers. If such spaces are left, score them out.</div><div><br /></div><div>3. Answers in excess of prescribed number will be ignored</div><div>The candidate must attempt questions strictly in accordance with the directions given on each</div><div>question paper. If questions are attempted in excess of the prescribed number only questions</div><div>attempted first up to the prescribed number shall be valued and the remaining answers will be</div><div>ignored.</div><div><br /></div><div>4. Questions relating to précis should be attempted only on précis sheets to be supplied on</div><div>demand by the invigilators. Precis sheet, whether used or not, should be placed inside the answer</div><div>books and fastened along with the additional answer book(s), if any. Candidates who fail to observe</div><div>this instruction will be penallised. Do not write your roll number on these sheets.</div><div><br /></div><div>5. Unfair means strictly prohibited Do not copy from the papers of any other candidates nor allow your papers to be copied nor give nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance of any description. It will be responsibility of every candidate to ensure that his/her answers are not copied by another candidate. Failure to do so will invite penalty, as may be awarded by the Commission for adoption of unfair means.</div><div><br /></div><div>6. Conduct in Examination Hall</div><div>Do not misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the examination hall or harass or</div><div>bodily harm the staff deployed for the conduct of examination. You will be severely penalized if you</div><div>attempt to do so.</div><div><br /></div><div>7. Please read carefully and abide by the instructions printed on the Question Paper and on the</div><div>Answer Book supplied in the Examination Hall.</div><div><br /></div><div>APPENDIX-V</div><div>PHYSICAL AND MEDICAL STANDARDS FOR THE CANDIDATE FOR THE POST OF</div><div>ASSISTANT COMMANDANTS IN THE CENTRAL ARMED POLICE FORCES.</div><div>APPENDIX-V(A)</div><div><br /></div><div>(1) Physical Standards:</div><div>The minimum requirements for the candidate are as follows:</div><div>Men Women</div><div>Height 165 cm 157 cm</div><div>Chest 81 cm (Not applicable)</div><div>(unexpanded) (with 5 cm minimum</div><div>expansion)</div><div>Weight 50 kg. 46 kg.</div><div><br /></div><div>Moreover, the weight should be as per the height and age as mentioned in Appendix-II(B).</div><div>(2) Medical Standards:</div><div>(a) Eye Sight:</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgHm1JIAoDSsTYWXL12mp0iFpw-vteKWRPCag4w5EzzuEjToNiegkudiwaIWUswXU8KfNXvoUGyr82Yk8CrBwzaFHLjPJA9X7ZnutCqdFGLDqMUgHNwAPih5SmFbkZNleEiSNTGIZmb9hEJyufdflpK5EaGuErf5hiNoYNfFPR53fun2OtbaIwC4Q/s373/Notification-UPSC-CAPF-ACs-2022_013.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="120" data-original-width="373" height="177" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgHm1JIAoDSsTYWXL12mp0iFpw-vteKWRPCag4w5EzzuEjToNiegkudiwaIWUswXU8KfNXvoUGyr82Yk8CrBwzaFHLjPJA9X7ZnutCqdFGLDqMUgHNwAPih5SmFbkZNleEiSNTGIZmb9hEJyufdflpK5EaGuErf5hiNoYNfFPR53fun2OtbaIwC4Q/w550-h177/Notification-UPSC-CAPF-ACs-2022_013.png" width="550" /></a></div><div>* LASIK surgery correction is permitted subject to prescribed criteria as below :-</div><div>a) Age - 18-35 years</div><div><br /></div><div>b) Axial-length - 21-26 mm.</div><div><br /></div><div>c) Corneal-thickness 425 micron</div><div><br /></div><div>d) Pre LASIK error - 6 D</div><div><br /></div><div>e) Post operative - Should be stable</div><div>period refractive flap</div><div><br /></div><div>f) Interval - 06 months (post operative period mandatory</div><div>(Candidate must have completed 06 months after LASIK surgery while considering</div><div>for recruitment in CAPFs).</div><div>(b) Carrying angle: Carrying angle should not be more than 15° for male and 20° for female.</div><div><br /></div><div>(c) Ear:</div><div>i) Candidate should not have any degree of deafness or persistent ear discharge.</div><div>ii) Candidate should not have any other condition (congenital or acquired) like atresia of</div><div>the meatus, exostosis, neoplasm which is causing obstruction of ear passage and should</div><div>not have history of recurrent earache, tinnitus and vertigo.</div><div><br /></div><div>(d) Nose: Candidates should not have DNS, atrophic rhinitis, tubercular ulceration, chronic</div><div>sinusitis.</div><div><br /></div><div>(e) Neck: Candidate should not have enlarged lymph nodes, thyroid or other swelling of neck,</div><div>inability to extend the neck fully or any evidence of disease of spine or cervical vertebrae.</div><div><br /></div><div>(f) Teeth: Candidate must possess sufficient number of sound teeth for efficient mastication.</div><div>Candidate should not have severe pyorrhea.</div><div><br /></div><div>(g) Venereal Disease: Candidate should not have active signs of clinical VD.</div><div><br /></div><div>(h) Chronic skin diseases: Candidate should not have chronic skin diseases like Leprosy,</div><div>chronic dermatitis, extensive Pityriasis Versicolor, psoriasis, SLE etc.</div><div><br /></div><div>(3) General Standards:</div><div>a) Speech should be without impediment i.e. no stammering.</div><div><br /></div><div>b) The candidate should not have any indication of chronic disease like TB, any type of arthritis,</div><div>high blood pressure, Diabetes, Bronchial Asthma, any heart disease.</div><div><br /></div><div>c) Candidate should not have perceptible and visible glandular swelling anywhere in the body.</div><div><br /></div><div>d) Chest should be well formed, devoid of any abnormality like flat chest, Pigeon chest, with</div><div>rickety rosary efects. Heart and lungs should be sound.</div><div><br /></div><div>e) Limbs, hands and feet should be well formed and fully developed and there shall be perfect</div><div>motion of all joints.</div><div><br /></div><div>f) Should not have any old/mal united fracture of bones.</div><div><br /></div><div>g) There should be free and perfect movements of all the joints.</div><div><br /></div><div>h) Feet and toes should be well formed</div><div>i) Should not have congenital malformation or defects.</div><div>(Candidate must have completed 06 months after LASIK surgery while considering for</div><div>recruitment in CAPFs).</div><div><br /></div><div>j) Should not bear traces of previous acute or chronic disease pointing to an impaired</div><div>constitution.</div><div><br /></div><div>k) Candidate should have no disease of the genito urinary tract.</div><div><br /></div><div>l) Candidate should have no inguinal, scrotal swelling, any type of Hernia.</div><div><br /></div><div>m) (Only for male) Both the testicles are in the scrotum and of normal size.</div><div><br /></div><div>n) The candidate must not have knock knees, flat foot, varicose veins.</div><div><br /></div><div>o) They must be in good mental and bodily health and free from any physical defect likely to</div><div>interfere with the efficient performance of the duties.</div><div><br /></div><div>(4) Candidate should not suffer from TACHYCARDIA (more than 100 pulse rate per minute) or</div><div>BRADYCARDIA (Less than 50 per minute).</div><div><br /></div><div>(5) Candidate should not suffer from Hernia, hemorrhoids, condylomata prolapse rectum.</div><div><br /></div><div>(6) Tattoo Clause:</div><div>(a) Content : Being a secular country, the religious sentiments of our countrymen are to be</div><div>respected and thus, tattoos depicting religious symbol or figures and the name, as followed in</div><div>Indian Army are to be permitted.</div><div><br /></div><div>(b) Location : Tattoos marked on traditional sites of the body like inner aspect of forearm but only</div><div>left forearm, being non saluting limb or dorsum of the hands are to be allowed.</div><div><br /></div><div>(c) Size : Size must be less than ¼ of the particular part (Elbow or Hand) of the body.</div><div>Note : 1. Medical Examination will be conducted as per revised uniform guidelines issued by MHA</div><div>UO dated 20.05.2015 for recruitment of GO’s and NGO’s in the CAPFs & AR and Review</div><div>Medical Examination will be conducted as per revised uniforms guidelines for RME in CAPFs</div><div>& ARs for GO’s & NGO’s vide MHA UO No.E-32012/ADG(Med)/DME&RME/ DA-1/2020 (Part</div><div>File)/1166 dated 31.05.2021.</div><div><br /></div><div>2. Candidates will either be declared "FIT" or "UNFIT" in the Medical Standard Tests. Those</div><div>candidates who are declared 'UNFIT' in the Medical Standard Tests will be allowed to appear</div><div>before the Review Medical Board at the earliest after they submit their consent for the same.</div><div><br /></div><div>APPENDIX-V(B)</div><div>Male Average Body Weights in Kilograms for Different Age Groups and Heights</div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi-beSzHB1l1TTFFQvnZ0OnIrTLPF1ZE7Gpe-Tts5tV76RUMfpiyN4Fm340NTRZtAfS7NK_8UThvL2tajDJKvexdRd_XlL0xiVC-dxSTeHsDmgFbS2vYn5BKHRlBJWTWCoxLSG6Go2bHKtF8IatD1S2hePIOSwRo8ZD1UIkbDn2RT3hkd6g24O5_A/s389/Notification-UPSC-CAPF-ACs-2022_015.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="216" data-original-width="389" height="350" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEi-beSzHB1l1TTFFQvnZ0OnIrTLPF1ZE7Gpe-Tts5tV76RUMfpiyN4Fm340NTRZtAfS7NK_8UThvL2tajDJKvexdRd_XlL0xiVC-dxSTeHsDmgFbS2vYn5BKHRlBJWTWCoxLSG6Go2bHKtF8IatD1S2hePIOSwRo8ZD1UIkbDn2RT3hkd6g24O5_A/w629-h350/Notification-UPSC-CAPF-ACs-2022_015.png" width="629" /></a></div>Female Average body Weights in Kilograms for Different Age Groups - Heights<div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhGQUxg6F8X9UY-C2dzrQETa-YzToF9UeRaF9W9k3dBlkqLHEEfoGCVPE5PXGpwKPJ-Uy2f97Avc44vS7RNsK74tnkXlpCVy9nRSwxXdmUUI5tiJQVNC9LZ8n5b3V1ALoEduabAn6EvxU9D7c2J0SgBDEildoIA25ZINZGwSW2fnRGnTqQwLlgylA/s393/Notification-UPSC-CAPF-ACs-2022_015.png" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" data-original-height="125" data-original-width="393" height="199" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhGQUxg6F8X9UY-C2dzrQETa-YzToF9UeRaF9W9k3dBlkqLHEEfoGCVPE5PXGpwKPJ-Uy2f97Avc44vS7RNsK74tnkXlpCVy9nRSwxXdmUUI5tiJQVNC9LZ8n5b3V1ALoEduabAn6EvxU9D7c2J0SgBDEildoIA25ZINZGwSW2fnRGnTqQwLlgylA/w623-h199/Notification-UPSC-CAPF-ACs-2022_015.png" width="623" /></a></div><div>The body weights are given in this chart corresponding to only certain heights (in cms). In respect of</div><div>height in between, the principle of ‘Average’ may be utilized for calculating body weights.</div><div><br /></div><div>For calculating average weight beyond the heights tabulated, 0.71 Kg for every one cm of increase or</div><div>decrease in height may be added or subtracted respectively.</div><div style="text-align: center;">*************</div>

UNION PIBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION EXAMINATION NOTICE CPF DATED  CENTRAL ARMED POLIC…